I need to take more time to work through the arguments, and I honestly don't have a lot of time right now. I'd rather be reading Greek than arguing about! However, I will note that you are the only one really to have seen this (if you are the same as the author of the paper, otherwise there's two of you). Wallace certainly doesn't see it as a contradiction, and my overall sense is that you've got a somewhat distorted view of how anaphora works. Idiosyncractic language like pronominal (here's looking at you Wallace and Middleton) doesn't help the discussion either.
I don't know about the other fellows you mention but I use pronominal in its primary linguistic sense.