You are the only one that I have come across who denies that τὸν Θεόν in John 1:1b is the Father. Even Trinitarians don't deny this, such is your confusion. For this reason alone, you should be banned from reading the Gospel of John.
As usual, you never actually understood the argument, or simply distorted it to defend your indefensible theology. σὺ μόνος ὃν ἀπολέγεσθαι τοῦ τὰς γραφὰς ἀναγινώσκειν δεῖ εῖ.
It means that Jesus is fully and completely God. I don't have time right now to give a full exposition of the text, but consider the following points:
Nonsense, you have gone on record to say that τὸν Θεόν in John 1:1b is not the Father. You can straighten this out next post by saying that τὸν Θεόν in John 1:1b is the Father. But you won’t, because you like to speak from both sides of your perverted mouth.
Did you forget?
Father is de jure God, Word is de facto God whenever the Word is in heaven. "Son" Jesus is the human being, who is not "God the Son" in any sense as to what "God" connotes, which is in the holding and exerciser of supreme authority. And yet as to the Son, everything was entrusted to him (Jo. 3:35). And upon the completion of that mission of trust, Jesus testified that such de facto powers as he had before were (re-)given to him (Ma. 28:18) by the one who was "μου πατέρα καί μου θεός" (Jo. 20:17) and to be exercised upon his ascension.
Ever read the Shema? God in that sense, undifferentiated with regard to person.
Nonsense. The Shema identifies God as just one individual, as the Father. Look at the singular verbs and pronouns everywhere. Nothing to “differentiate.” You need help.
Here is the Shema in Hebrew:
I'm making a grammatical argument. Look at the grammar:
Not really an argument per se. It's why I posted the Hebrew: κύριος refers of course to יהוה. It's actually in the NT that a big deal is made about God as the Father (and particularly, interestingly enough, in the gospel of John), but not so much in the OT, where, if memory serves me, he is called father 9 or so times. But I'm not here to feed your need for theological controversy and engage in Trinitarian apologetics. But isn't it interesting in light of the Shema that Jesus' most frequent title is κύριος, and in a number of very intriguing contexts?
Just repeating yourself doesn't help. I mean undifferentiated with regard to person. With God called Father so few times in the OT (a much bigger corpus of material than the NT), it's simply not a prominent designation, and the faithful OT believer would have thought of יהוה as אלהימ, not אב, and certainly not אבי!
Explain that ( bold above). With that are you saying that ὁ Θεὸς in John 1:1b is indeed a single person, albeit an undefined person ?Just repeating yourself doesn't help. I mean undifferentiated with regard to person. With God called Father so few times in the OT (a much bigger corpus of material than the NT), it's simply not a prominent designation, and the faithful OT believer would have thought of יהוה as אלהימ, not אב, and certainly not אבי!
For accuracy, 13 times in the OT, over 150 times in the NT, and 30 times Jesus refers to God as "our Father." Of course, when he refers to God as his own Father, he gets quite the reaction...John 5:17-18.
συ εἶ τῇ κεφαλῇ παχύς... It is simply used as God without respect to Father, Son or Holy Spirit.