squirrelyguy
Active member
A robust, biblical view of the eschaton is, in my opinion, the only way to make sense of what the Bible teaches concerning how people are saved. If you are not a premillennialist, then it is impossible for you to have a correct view of how people are saved (but that doesn't mean you aren't saved). The relevant passages of Scripture on the subject of salvation history (past, present, and future) require a certain assumption about what happens when Christ returns in order for them all to fit together. That assumption happens to include a belief in a literal reign of Christ on earth between His second coming and the eternal state (although this belief by itself is by no means sufficient, as most premillennialists don't believe in a possibility of one's eternal destiny being changed after death).
Though I could write a lengthy thread on this subject, I doubt many would read it and engage with it...so I'll start with one passage. Let's look at what Paul says in Romans 11 and compare it to what he says earlier in Romans 9.
"I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles. Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness!" (vv. 11-12)
"Concerning the gospel they are enemies for your sake, but concerning the election they are beloved for the sake of the fathers. For the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. For as you were once disobedient to God, yet have now obtained mercy through their disobedience, even so these also have now been disobedient, that through the mercy shown you they also may obtain mercy. For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all." (vv. 28-32)
Here is the question for Calvinists: who is this "they", "their", and "them" that we see in these verses, if not the "vessels of wrath prepared for destruction" in 9:22?
Though I could write a lengthy thread on this subject, I doubt many would read it and engage with it...so I'll start with one passage. Let's look at what Paul says in Romans 11 and compare it to what he says earlier in Romans 9.
"I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles. Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness!" (vv. 11-12)
"Concerning the gospel they are enemies for your sake, but concerning the election they are beloved for the sake of the fathers. For the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. For as you were once disobedient to God, yet have now obtained mercy through their disobedience, even so these also have now been disobedient, that through the mercy shown you they also may obtain mercy. For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all." (vv. 28-32)
Here is the question for Calvinists: who is this "they", "their", and "them" that we see in these verses, if not the "vessels of wrath prepared for destruction" in 9:22?