My question is this:Where did I say possession is a requirement for them to be inherent. In fact I said exactly the opposite. Want me to restate my position AGAIN?
if I can deny you rights that you think are god-given, what is the practical difference between them being god-given, and being man-given?
Never mind going to the basis on which you would demand them back - that's abstract, and I've already said "no".
What is the practical difference.