There are many things scripture says are applied to the saved. They are described as saved, they are credited with righteousness, they are put in Christ, they are born again, their old man is crucified with Christ, they are adopted as sons, they are made holy and righteous in His sight, they are 'going to heaven', etc.
Now if scripture is to tell us, the saved, what being saved involves, it is going to have to do two things:
1. Indentify the audience being addressed as the saved. It must use some term which is identified with saved people. This to avoid the not saved thinking such things apply to them.
2. It must tell that audience something about what being saved means.
For example. The saved are described as the rigtheous. So if a sentence said " the righteous shall be adopted as sons of God" we have both 1 and 2 above satisfied and know something about what is applied to the saved.
"Us in him" is a collective word for the saved. So if we read a verse which says: "God chose us in him to be made holy and righteous in his sight" we would again see the audience being identified and that audience being told something that is applied to them.
If we said "God predestined us in him to be adopted as sons" the same would apply. And we would know that God predestined that us in hims would be adopted as sons.
How is scripture to tell us what applies to us, if it doesn't do 1 and 2?
And if it's not possible without 1 and 2, how can we read 1 and 2 type verses in any other way but this way?
Now if scripture is to tell us, the saved, what being saved involves, it is going to have to do two things:
1. Indentify the audience being addressed as the saved. It must use some term which is identified with saved people. This to avoid the not saved thinking such things apply to them.
2. It must tell that audience something about what being saved means.
For example. The saved are described as the rigtheous. So if a sentence said " the righteous shall be adopted as sons of God" we have both 1 and 2 above satisfied and know something about what is applied to the saved.
"Us in him" is a collective word for the saved. So if we read a verse which says: "God chose us in him to be made holy and righteous in his sight" we would again see the audience being identified and that audience being told something that is applied to them.
If we said "God predestined us in him to be adopted as sons" the same would apply. And we would know that God predestined that us in hims would be adopted as sons.
How is scripture to tell us what applies to us, if it doesn't do 1 and 2?
And if it's not possible without 1 and 2, how can we read 1 and 2 type verses in any other way but this way?
