FYI again - Luke 1:34-35 POINT BLANK says the Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you to cause the virgin Mary to conceive the Flesh ( incarnation of God the Word of John1:1 - the God-Man called Jesus Christ ) mentioned in John 1:14! So yes indeed God the Father is also His Father and Jesus even calls Him His Father! FYT the Sin nature comes ONLY from the " X or Y " chromosome of a human male and NEVER the " X " only chromosome of a human female! Sin nature is passed on only through human males and that is EXACTLY one of the reasons why Jesus had no Biological human father to cause His conception! The Power of the Most High created the needed " Y " chromosome that the Holy Spirit planted in one of Mary's " X " chromosome eggs! So that's why Jesus was not born with the stain of Sin that ONLY human fathers pass on to their offspring! Case closed!
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How many Fathers does the man Jesus have?
- Thread starter Yahchristian
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johnny guitar
Well-known member
To conceive the Flesh of God The Word is a fictional addition to Scripture by you.FYI again - Luke 1:34-35 POINT BLANK says the Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you to cause the virgin Mary to conceive the Flesh ( incarnation of God the Word of John1:1 - the God-Man called Jesus Christ ) mentioned in John 1:14! So yes indeed God the Father is also His Father and Jesus even calls Him His Father! FYT the Sin nature comes ONLY from the " X or Y " chromosome of a human male and NEVER the " X " only chromosome of a human female! Sin nature is passed on only through human males and that is EXACTLY one of the reasons why Jesus had no Biological human father to cause His conception! The Power of the Most High created the needed " Y " chromosome that the Holy Spirit planted in one of Mary's " X " chromosome eggs! So that's why Jesus was not born with the stain of Sin that ONLY human fathers pass on to their offspring! Case closed!
Our sinful nature comes from BOTH parents.
Are you suggestion women, mothers have NO sin within them????
FYI the WORD is NOT fictional because John 1:1 mentions the Word who ( who became Flesh in John 1:14 ) " Was God " and " was with God " the Father & Holy Spirit! And FYI again the human Sin nature is ONLY passed on by the human father in His " X & Y " chromosomes! The mother's " X " chromosome does NOT pass it on, which is 100% why Jesus did not have that Sin nature because He had no biological human father that passed it on to Him ! Case closed!To conceive the Flesh of God The Word is a fictional addition to Scripture by you.
Our sinful nature comes from BOTH parents.
Are you suggestion women, mothers have NO sin within them????
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johnny guitar
Well-known member
To conceive the flesh of The Word IS fiction in Luke 1:34-35.FYI the WORD is NOT fictional because John 1:1 mentions the Word who ( who became Flesh in John 1:14 ) " Was God " and " was with God " the Father & Holy Spirit! And FYI again the human Sin nature is ONLY passed on by the human father in His " X & Y " chromosomes! The mother's " X " chromosome does NOT pass it on, which is 100% why Jesus did not have that Sin nature because He had no biological human father that passed it on to Him ! Case closed!
BTW The Holy Spirit is NOT mentioned in John 1.
There is NO passage in the Bible which indicates the human sin nature is passed on by ONLY The Father.
X & Y chromosomes have NOTHING to do with passing on the sin nature and NO scientific evidence supports such an assertion.
Jesus did NOT have our sin nature because He had NO human Father AND The power of The Father protected Jesus from inheriting any taint of His mother's sin nature.
Case indeed closed.
FYI again, to conceive the " FLESH " ( John 1:14 ) of the Word in John 1:1 is NOT Fiction in Luke 1:34-35 because it " Was God " ( of John 1:1, who the Word was with, that caused the Virgin Mary to conceive! And since the one GOD of the scriptures is a TRINITY ( FSHS of Matt.28:19 and again in 1 John 5:7 ), then the GOD who God the Word "was with" in John 1:1 absolutely has to be the Father & Holy Spirit! How do I know that FACT Johnny?------------------- Here is EXACTLY how - the one GOD ( FSHS ) is omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7 and as such All three ( FSHS ) had to be there in John 1:1 in the beginning! So if you then say only God the Word was there with God the Father, only in John 1:1, then you are telling us that God the Holy Spirit is NOT omnipresent and as such CONTREDICTING ( 2 Peter 3:16 - your twisted view of John 1:1 ) Psalm 139:7 that CLEARLY tells us GOD ( the Trinity ) is Omnipresent! More proof that the Holy Spirit is omnipresent is in 1 Cor.6:19 because He would Not be able to be in millions of saved peoples Temples/Bodies if He were NOT Omnipresent! Case closed on your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that the Holy Spirit was not present in John 1:1 with the Word & the Father!To conceive the flesh of The Word IS fiction in Luke 1:34-35.
BTW The Holy Spirit is NOT mentioned in John 1.
There is NO passage in the Bible which indicates the human sin nature is passed on by ONLY The Father.
X & Y chromosomes have NOTHING to do with passing on the sin nature and NO scientific evidence supports such an assertion.
Jesus did NOT have our sin nature because He had NO human Father AND The power of The Father protected Jesus from inheriting any taint of His mother's sin nature.
Case indeed closed.
johnny guitar
Well-known member
The passage in question is Luke 1:34-35. Keep focused.FYI again, to conceive the " FLESH " ( John 1:14 ) of the Word in John 1:1 is NOT Fiction in Luke 1:34-35 because it " Was God " ( of John 1:1, who the Word was with, that caused the Virgin Mary to conceive! And since the one GOD of the scriptures is a TRINITY ( FSHS of Matt.28:19 and again in 1 John 5:7 ), then the GOD who God the Word "was with" in John 1:1 absolutely has to be the Father & Holy Spirit! How do I know that FACT Johnny?------------------- Here is EXACTLY how - the one GOD ( FSHS ) is omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7 and as such All three ( FSHS ) had to be there in John 1:1 in the beginning! So if you then say only God the Word was there with God the Father, only in John 1:1, then you are telling us that God the Holy Spirit is NOT omnipresent and as such CONTREDICTING ( 2 Peter 3:16 - your twisted view of John 1:1 ) Psalm 139:7 that CLEARLY tells us GOD ( the Trinity ) is Omnipresent! More proof that the Holy Spirit is omnipresent is in 1 Cor.6:19 because He would Not be able to be in millions of saved peoples Temples/Bodies if He were NOT Omnipresent! Case closed on your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that the Holy Spirit was not present in John 1:1 with the Word & the Father!
NO mention of The Holy Spirit in John 1.
The body Of Jesus was conceived by The Holy Spirit.
FYI Johnny, it is CLEARLY you that needs to be focused because ALL scriptures ( not just one or two ) must agree with NO CONTRADICTIONS! Now since GOD ( Trinity - FSHS ) is Omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7, and the Holy Spirit is included as being Omnipresent or else He could not dwell in MILLIONS of saved peoples temples/bodies simultaneously at the SAME time as per 1 Cor.6:19! Thus He ( the Holy Spirit, Johnny ) was in Fact present in John 1:1, even though NOT specifically mentioned! Only precarnate Jesus Christ is specifically mentioned as God the WORD in John 1:1! It says that He ( the Word ) " Was with God " in that verse! No specific mention of the Father nor Holy Spirit for the God that He was with in that verse, Johnny! Conclusion ( since all 3 as GOD are Omnipresent ), the Word " was with God " the Father & Holy Spirit in John 1:1! Luke 1:34-35 shows that BOTH the Holy Spirit & the power of the Most High ( God the Father ) were in FACT involved with the conception of God the Word's " flesh " body of John 1:14, in the womb of the virgin Mary! Also there is other scripture, such as Hebrews 10:5, that says " Thou " ( GOD ) prepared His body! Thus your twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of John 1:1 ( the Holy Spirit not present in it ) remains 100% rebuked by ALL these posted scriptural Facts, that will NEVER Contradict one another as per 2 Tim.3:16, Johnny! If you still think NOT, then consider these Facts in scriptures, that can't contradict one another ----- Jesus Himself said He would raise His Temple/body in 3 days after its destruction ( by crucifixion ) in John 2:19-22! So does that contradict Romans 8:11 that says the Spirit ( Holy Spirit of 1 Cor.6:19 that dwells in saved peoples temple/bodies ) raised Him! Then we have Acts 10:40 that says GOD raised Him from the dead on the 3rd day! There are several other scriptures that I can quote, but these should suffice! There is no contradiction because ALL three ( GOD - Trinity ) raised Him from the dead! Now back to where you said NO mention of the Holy Spirit in John 1:1, there is also no mention of Him ( nor God the Father ) in John 2:19-22, where Jesus said He would raise His own body on day three! So going by your previous say so ( about things not mentioned in certain scriptures, like John 1:1 - no mention of the Holy Spirit ), then ONLY Jesus Christ and NOT God the Father & Holy Spirit, raised His body on day three! FYI, that ( going by your previous say so, Johnny ) contradicts those 2 other scriptures on the SAME Topic that I posted! Thus what I previously posted stands as GOD's truth with no contradictions at all ---------- All Three ( TRINITY - FSHS ) are involved, Johnny! Case closed!The passage in question is Luke 1:34-35. Keep focused.
NO mention of The Holy Spirit in John 1.
The body Of Jesus was conceived by The Holy Spirit.
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If we say anything you all say we have to document what we say. The same goes for you all and you have to document that the HS was in John 1 and not get out of it by saying he had to be there with the others? The case is closed that the HS was not there with God (there was no Son either) until you provide the proof in both cases?FYI again, to conceive the " FLESH " ( John 1:14 ) of the Word in John 1:1 is NOT Fiction in Luke 1:34-35 because it " Was God " ( of John 1:1, who the Word was with, that caused the Virgin Mary to conceive! And since the one GOD of the scriptures is a TRINITY ( FSHS of Matt.28:19 and again in 1 John 5:7 ), then the GOD who God the Word "was with" in John 1:1 absolutely has to be the Father & Holy Spirit! How do I know that FACT Johnny?------------------- Here is EXACTLY how - the one GOD ( FSHS ) is omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7 and as such All three ( FSHS ) had to be there in John 1:1 in the beginning! So if you then say only God the Word was there with God the Father, only in John 1:1, then you are telling us that God the Holy Spirit is NOT omnipresent and as such CONTREDICTING ( 2 Peter 3:16 - your twisted view of John 1:1 ) Psalm 139:7 that CLEARLY tells us GOD ( the Trinity ) is Omnipresent! More proof that the Holy Spirit is omnipresent is in 1 Cor.6:19 because He would Not be able to be in millions of saved peoples Temples/Bodies if He were NOT Omnipresent! Case closed on your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that the Holy Spirit was not present in John 1:1 with the Word & the Father!
Just more of your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) because the Holy Spirit is Omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7 & 1 Cor.6:19! So yes indeed He was in John 1:1 in the beginning! God The Word & God the Father were also there in the beginning before creation! Case closed on Nathan P's 100% WRONG say so! Need more proof then check this out that I posted to Johnny ------------------------- FYI Johnny, it is CLEARLY you that needs to be focused because ALL scriptures ( not just one or two ) must agree with NO CONTRADICTIONS! Now since GOD ( Trinity - FSHS ) is Omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7, and the Holy Spirit is included as being Omnipresent or else He could not dwell in MILLIONS of saved peoples temples/bodies simultaneously at the SAME time as per 1 Cor.6:19! Thus He ( the Holy Spirit, Johnny ) was in Fact present in John 1:1, even though NOT specifically mentioned! Only precarnate Jesus Christ is specifically mentioned as God the WORD in John 1:1! It says that He ( the Word ) " Was with God " in that verse! No specific mention of the Father nor Holy Spirit for the God that He was with in that verse, Johnny! Conclusion ( since all 3 as GOD are Omnipresent ), the Word " was with God " the Father & Holy Spirit in John 1:1! Luke 1:34-35 shows that BOTH the Holy Spirit & the power of the Most High ( God the Father ) were in FACT involved with the conception of God the Word's " flesh " body of John 1:14, in the womb of the virgin Mary! Also there is other scripture, such as Hebrews 10:5, that says " Thou " ( GOD ) prepared His body! Thus your twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of John 1:1 ( the Holy Spirit not present in it ) remains 100% rebuked by ALL these posted scriptural Facts, that will NEVER Contradict one another as per 2 Tim.3:16, Johnny! If you still think NOT, then consider these Facts in scriptures, that can't contradict one another ----- Jesus Himself said He would raise His Temple/body in 3 days after its destruction ( by crucifixion ) in John 2:19-22! So does that contradict Romans 8:11 that says the Spirit ( Holy Spirit of 1 Cor.6:19 that dwells in saved peoples temple/bodies ) raised Him! Then we have Acts 10:40 that says GOD raised Him from the dead on the 3rd day! There are several other scriptures that I can quote, but these should suffice! There is no contradiction because ALL three ( GOD - Trinity ) raised Him from the dead! Now back to where you said NO mention of the Holy Spirit in John 1:1, there is also no mention of Him ( nor God the Father ) in John 2:19-22, where Jesus said He would raise His own body on day three! So going by your previous say so ( about things not mentioned in certain scriptures, like John 1:1 - no mention of the Holy Spirit ), then ONLY Jesus Christ and NOT God the Father & Holy Spirit, raised His body on day three! FYI, that ( going by your previous say so, Johnny ) contradicts those 2 other scriptures on the SAME Topic that I posted! Thus what I previously posted stands as GOD's truth with no contradictions at all ---------- All Three ( TRINITY - FSHS ) are involved, Johnny! Case closed!If we say anything you all say we have to document what we say. The same goes for you all and you have to document that the HS was in John 1 and not get out of it by saying he had to be there with the others? The case is closed that the HS was not there with God (there was no Son either) until you provide the proof in both cases?
I do not want to hear the HS is omnipresent and thus he was there. Show me clear documented proof the HS was there? And no Jesus did not raise his body like it has been explained numerous times to you all. It is talking about the temple of his body he would raise and not his body.Just more of your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) because the Holy Spirit is Omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7 & 1 Cor.6:19! So yes indeed He was in John 1:1 in the beginning! God The Word & God the Father were also there in the beginning before creation! Case closed on Nathan P's 100% WRONG say so! Need more proof then check this out that I posted to Johnny ------------------------- FYI Johnny, it is CLEARLY you that needs to be focused because ALL scriptures ( not just one or two ) must agree with NO CONTRADICTIONS! Now since GOD ( Trinity - FSHS ) is Omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7, and the Holy Spirit is included as being Omnipresent or else He could not dwell in MILLIONS of saved peoples temples/bodies simultaneously at the SAME time as per 1 Cor.6:19! Thus He ( the Holy Spirit, Johnny ) was in Fact present in John 1:1, even though NOT specifically mentioned! Only precarnate Jesus Christ is specifically mentioned as God the WORD in John 1:1! It says that He ( the Word ) " Was with God " in that verse! No specific mention of the Father nor Holy Spirit for the God that He was with in that verse, Johnny! Conclusion ( since all 3 as GOD are Omnipresent ), the Word " was with God " the Father & Holy Spirit in John 1:1! Luke 1:34-35 shows that BOTH the Holy Spirit & the power of the Most High ( God the Father ) were in FACT involved with the conception of God the Word's " flesh " body of John 1:14, in the womb of the virgin Mary! Also there is other scripture, such as Hebrews 10:5, that says " Thou " ( GOD ) prepared His body! Thus your twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of John 1:1 ( the Holy Spirit not present in it ) remains 100% rebuked by ALL these posted scriptural Facts, that will NEVER Contradict one another as per 2 Tim.3:16, Johnny! If you still think NOT, then consider these Facts in scriptures, that can't contradict one another ----- Jesus Himself said He would raise His Temple/body in 3 days after its destruction ( by crucifixion ) in John 2:19-22! So does that contradict Romans 8:11 that says the Spirit ( Holy Spirit of 1 Cor.6:19 that dwells in saved peoples temple/bodies ) raised Him! Then we have Acts 10:40 that says GOD raised Him from the dead on the 3rd day! There are several other scriptures that I can quote, but these should suffice! There is no contradiction because ALL three ( GOD - Trinity ) raised Him from the dead! Now back to where you said NO mention of the Holy Spirit in John 1:1, there is also no mention of Him ( nor God the Father ) in John 2:19-22, where Jesus said He would raise His own body on day three! So going by your previous say so ( about things not mentioned in certain scriptures, like John 1:1 - no mention of the Holy Spirit ), then ONLY Jesus Christ and NOT God the Father & Holy Spirit, raised His body on day three! FYI, that ( going by your previous say so, Johnny ) contradicts those 2 other scriptures on the SAME Topic that I posted! Thus what I previously posted stands as GOD's truth with no contradictions at all ---------- All Three ( TRINITY - FSHS ) are involved, Johnny! Case closed!
Of course you do NOT want to hear about those scriptures concerning the Omnipresence of GOD ( Psalm 139:7 ) because they refute your twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that God the Holy Spirit was NOT present in John 1:1 with God the Word! Also the Temple is His Body in John 2:19-22! They destroyed His body ( temple ) by crucifixion and then He raised ( resurrected ) it 3 days later as He said He would do! So if the temple was not His body that actually got raised ( resurrected ) 3 days after His death on the cross, then pray tell, what did He Raise ( resurrect ) 3 days after His body died on the cross?! According to 1 Cor.6:19 the Omnipresent Holy Spirit dwells in all saved peoples Temples ( which is their bodies )! -----------------------I do not want to hear the HS is omnipresent and thus he was there. Show me clear documented proof the HS was there? And no Jesus did not raise his body like it has been explained numerous times to you all. It is talking about the temple of his body he would raise and not his body.
1 Corinthians 6:19
New International Version
19 Do you not know that your bodies are temples of the Holy Spirit, who is in you, whom you have received from God? You are not your own; ------------------------------ -------------------------- --------------------------Thus Jesus' body is the temple that He raised on day three! Case closed! -------------- Just can't wait to see what temple you say He raised 3 days after the death of His body!It says he was talking about the temple of his body and thus he was not talking about his body he would raise.Of course you do NOT want to hear about those scriptures concerning the Omnipresence of GOD ( Psalm 139:7 ) because they refute your twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that God the Holy Spirit was NOT present in John 1:1 with God the Word! Also the Temple is His Body in John 2:19-22! They destroyed His body ( temple ) by crucifixion and then He raised ( resurrected ) it 3 days later as He said He would do! So if the temple was not His body that actually got raised ( resurrected ) 3 days after His death on the cross, then pray tell, what did He Raise ( resurrect ) 3 days after His body died on the cross?! According to 1 Cor.6:19 the Omnipresent Holy Spirit dwells in all saved peoples Temples ( which is their bodies )! -----------------------
1 Corinthians 6:19
New International Version
19 Do you not know that your bodies are temples of the Holy Spirit, who is in you, whom you have received from God? You are not your own; ------------------------------ -------------------------- --------------------------Thus Jesus' body is the temple that He raised on day three! Case closed! -------------- Just can't wait to see what temple you say He raised 3 days after the death of His body!
johnny guitar
Well-known member
All three Persons present at the conception of Jesus Christ.FYI Johnny, it is CLEARLY you that needs to be focused because ALL scriptures ( not just one or two ) must agree with NO CONTRADICTIONS! Now since GOD ( Trinity - FSHS ) is Omnipresent as per Psalm 139:7, and the Holy Spirit is included as being Omnipresent or else He could not dwell in MILLIONS of saved peoples temples/bodies simultaneously at the SAME time as per 1 Cor.6:19! Thus He ( the Holy Spirit, Johnny ) was in Fact present in John 1:1, even though NOT specifically mentioned! Only precarnate Jesus Christ is specifically mentioned as God the WORD in John 1:1! It says that He ( the Word ) " Was with God " in that verse! No specific mention of the Father nor Holy Spirit for the God that He was with in that verse, Johnny! Conclusion ( since all 3 as GOD are Omnipresent ), the Word " was with God " the Father & Holy Spirit in John 1:1! Luke 1:34-35 shows that BOTH the Holy Spirit & the power of the Most High ( God the Father ) were in FACT involved with the conception of God the Word's " flesh " body of John 1:14, in the womb of the virgin Mary! Also there is other scripture, such as Hebrews 10:5, that says " Thou " ( GOD ) prepared His body! Thus your twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of John 1:1 ( the Holy Spirit not present in it ) remains 100% rebuked by ALL these posted scriptural Facts, that will NEVER Contradict one another as per 2 Tim.3:16, Johnny! If you still think NOT, then consider these Facts in scriptures, that can't contradict one another ----- Jesus Himself said He would raise His Temple/body in 3 days after its destruction ( by crucifixion ) in John 2:19-22! So does that contradict Romans 8:11 that says the Spirit ( Holy Spirit of 1 Cor.6:19 that dwells in saved peoples temple/bodies ) raised Him! Then we have Acts 10:40 that says GOD raised Him from the dead on the 3rd day! There are several other scriptures that I can quote, but these should suffice! There is no contradiction because ALL three ( GOD - Trinity ) raised Him from the dead! Now back to where you said NO mention of the Holy Spirit in John 1:1, there is also no mention of Him ( nor God the Father ) in John 2:19-22, where Jesus said He would raise His own body on day three! So going by your previous say so ( about things not mentioned in certain scriptures, like John 1:1 - no mention of the Holy Spirit ), then ONLY Jesus Christ and NOT God the Father & Holy Spirit, raised His body on day three! FYI, that ( going by your previous say so, Johnny ) contradicts those 2 other scriptures on the SAME Topic that I posted! Thus what I previously posted stands as GOD's truth with no contradictions at all ---------- All Three ( TRINITY - FSHS ) are involved, Johnny! Case closed!
FYI Nathan P - Read John 2:19-22 again as verse 21 says the temple that He was speaking of raising in 3 days after they destroy it is His BODY and NOT the Temple building that they thought He meant in verse19! Here it is AS IS in this Bible - so read it and weep because the Temple He was speaking of in verse 19 is His BODY as per verse 21! -------------------------It says he was talking about the temple of his body and thus he was not talking about his body he would raise.
John 2:19-22
New International Version
19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”20 They replied, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body. 22 After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken. ---------------------Thus what is the Temple of His Body if NOT His body?!!!!!! FYI - It was His body, as this version of the Bible CLEARLY tells us! Case closed! Just can't wait to see what you say the Temple of His body is, if NOT His Flesh & bone body of Luke 24:39 that He raised after 3 days dead in the tomb!
No it clearly say it was the temple of his body and not his body.FYI Nathan P - Read John 2:19-22 again as verse 21 says the temple that He was speaking of raising in 3 days after they destroy it is His BODY and NOT the Temple building that they thought He meant in verse19! Here it is AS IS in this Bible - so read it and weep because the Temple He was speaking of in verse 19 is His BODY as per verse 21! -------------------------
John 2:19-22
New International Version
19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”
20 They replied, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body. 22 After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken. ---------------------Thus what is the Temple of His Body if NOT His body?!!!!!! FYI - It was His body, as this version of the Bible CLEARLY tells us! Case closed! Just can't wait to see what you say the Temple of His body is, if NOT His Flesh & bone body of Luke 24:39 that He raised after 3 days dead in the tomb!
FYI again I posted John 2:21 and it says the Temple that He was speaking of was His Body! Also it was His Body that was raised by God in 3 Days! Thus the Temple of His Body is His Body! Case closed! ---------------------- John 2:21 NIV - But the temple he had spoken of was his body --------------------------No it clearly say it was the temple of his body and not his body.
Acts 10:40
New International Version
40 but God raised him from the dead on the third day and caused him to be seen. ---- This goes with this Nathan P --------------------John 2:19
New International Version
19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”--------------------- So in Acts 10:40 He was caused to be seen and His Apostles saw Him in Luke 24:39 ------------------Luke 24:39
New International Version
39 Look at my hands and my feet ( hands & feet are part of His resurrected crucified body, Nathan P ) . It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones ( His body that was raised on the 3rd day, Nathan P ), as you see I have.”
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How come you all cherry pick which version to use so it fits your view as most versions at vs 21 say it was the temple of his body. They say when we can the nkjv is the best version to use and we can use that consistently.FYI again I posted John 2:21 and it says the Temple that He was speaking of was His Body! Also it was His Body that was raised by God in 3 Days! Thus the Temple of His Body is His Body! Case closed! ---------------------- John 2:21 NIV - But the temple he had spoken of was his body --------------------------
Acts 10:40
New International Version
40 but God raised him from the dead on the third day and caused him to be seen. ---- This goes with this Nathan P --------------------
John 2:19
New International Version
19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”--------------------- So in Acts 10:40 He was caused to be seen and His Apostles saw Him in Luke 24:39 ------------------
Luke 24:39
New International Version
39 Look at my hands and my feet ( hands & feet are part of His resurrected crucified body, Nathan P ) . It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones ( His body that was raised on the 3rd day, Nathan P ), as you see I have.”
johnny guitar
Well-known member
This temple refers to His BODY.No it clearly say it was the temple of his body and not his body.
You go back and forth and at first say it says "his body" and next you say it says "of his body. Which one is it?How come you all cherry pick which version to use so it fits your view as most versions at vs 21 say it was the temple of his body. They say when we can the nkjv is the best version to use and we can use that consistently.
And the nkjv says he was speaking of the temple of his body? Prove your version is more accurate?
Trinitarian
Active member
And Jesus refers to Him as Father .It would be easier for Yahchristian to understand if you said No Biological human father instead of no father because God the Holy Spirit & the Most High caused Mary to become pregnant ( without any sexual union ) with the Son of God called Jesus Christ as per Matt.1:20 & Luke 1:34-35!