If ό Θεός is the NT designate name for God the Father of Jesus....

This would have been a better scripture to support your assertion.
1 Peter 4:14
If you are insulted for the name of Christ, you are blessed, because the Spirit of glory, and of God, rests upon you NASB
εἰ ὀνειδίζεσθε ἐν ὀνόματι Χριστοῦ

I might still say that the name of Christ is Jesus just to be contrary.

Why do you have to be so snarky?

Peter wasn't talking about a set of letters from the alphabet.
 
It does not have to be. Look at just one example:



I fear Gryllus has deceived you. Χριστός (with or without the article btw) is the functional equivalent of a proper name in not a few passages of scripture.

Having done the deed, notice he is no where to be found lending support to your position, but has deserted you to it.

be well,
Gryllus has other things to do besides haunt this forum. As it is, Χριστός works perfectly well as a title in Acts 26:23.
 
In the Psalms ὁ θεός is used as a proper name of יְהוָה. I won’t regret posting this.
Do you think "Word" John 1:1 is used as a proper name? Is it a proper name?

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
 
It does not have to be. Look at just one example:



I fear Gryllus has deceived you. Χριστός (with or without the article btw) is the functional equivalent of a proper name in not a few passages of scripture.

Having done the deed, notice he is no where to be found lending support to your position, but has deserted you to it.

be well,
Gryllus has nothing to do with my position.
 
John 20:31 ταῦτα δὲ γέγραπται ἵνα |πιστεύητε| ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, καὶ ἵνα πιστεύοντες ζωὴν ἔχητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ.

What name is John referring to in this verse?
 
John 20:31 ταῦτα δὲ γέγραπται ἵνα |πιστεύητε| ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, καὶ ἵνα πιστεύοντες ζωὴν ἔχητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ.

What name is John referring to in this verse?
I would say "Jesus the Messiah"

However 'Let etymology create a path"


the Anointed," synonymous with and translating to Greek Hebrew mashiah (see messiah), a title given to Jesus of Nazareth; Old English crist (by 830, perhaps 675), from Latin Christus, from Greek khristos "the anointed," noun use of verbal adjective of khriein "to rub, anoint" (from PIE root *ghrei- "to rub").

In the primitive Church it was a title, and used with the definite article, but from an early period it was used without it and regarded as part of the proper name of Jesus. It was treated as a proper name in Old English, but not regularly capitalized until 17c. Pronunciation with long -i- is result of Irish missionary work in England, 7c.-8c. The ch- form, regular since c. 1500 in English, was rare before. Capitalization of the word begins 14c. but is not fixed until 17c. The Latin term drove out Old English Hæland "healer, savior," as the preferred descriptive term for Jesus.
 
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Gryllus has other things to do besides haunt this forum. As it is, Χριστός works perfectly well as a title in Acts 26:23.
Not at all. In Acts 26:23 the apostle speaks of something which the Christ had already suffered in the past. He could not have been referring to anyone other than Jesus when he made this comment . Look at 1 Cor. 1:17 as another example. And there are many more.

If you won't accept reason from me, perhaps Wallace might help ? --

Nevertheless, even if original, this reading suffers from the fact that, in the epistles, Χριστός is almost certainly a proper name (see discussion below on Eph. 5:5).

Yet, Χριστός in the Gospels is not yet a proper name, as it is in the epistles.

But I doubt reason will work with you. You are deceived and you unwittingly deceive others. Not a good place to be.
 
Do you think "Word" John 1:1 is used as a proper name? Is it a proper name?

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Yes, it is referring to something, to the Torah in Heaven (which was created before the foundation of the World). The Midrasim are instructive on this matter.
 
Yes, it is referring to something, to the Torah in Heaven (which was created before the foundation of the World). The Midrasim are instructive on this matter.
So the Torah became flesh and dwelt among us; and we saw His glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
 
Modern culture rarely raises the important issues of faith, religion, and God that are important to society. But it is faith in God that makes us human and teaches us mercy and compassion. When I was young, I did not believe in God, and it was more important for me to hear the new Beatles single than to hear a priest preach. Now I am wiser and even though I can't go to church anymore I can go to online services edit per mod God sustains me and gives me the strength to keep going, no matter what. This is very important in our time.
 
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Yep. That's what the text says. The Word (i.e. the Torah) became flesh (i.e. became a human being).

16 Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day 17 things which are a shadow of what is to come but the body is Christ.
Colossians 2:17
 
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