If Bauer is correct should John 10:33 be rendered "a god"?

Roger Thornhill

Well-known member
"life coming into existence in the Word" is not the same as "the word received life from the Father." You are proving my point.

Also, what are you calling the later punctuation, the NA 28 or the other?
Life coming into existence in someone is receiving life for a son from his father.

Unless you were adopted that's also true in your case as well.

Now, when that son is called the first-born of his father and also says he lives because of his father it's impossible to come to any other conclusion.
 

Our Lord's God

Well-known member
BDAG μονογενὴς -i.e. uniquely divine as God’s son and transcending all others alleged to be gods) or a uniquely begotten deity (for the perspective s. J 10:33-36), another rdg.ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός is found. MPol 20:2 in the doxology διὰ παιδὸς αὐτοῦ τοῦ μονογενοῦς ᾽Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ. Some (e.g. WBauer, Hdb.; JBulman, Calvin Theological Journal 16, ’81, 56-79; JDahms, NTS 29, ’83, 222-32) prefer to regard μ. as somewhat heightened in mng. in J and 1J to only-begotten or begotten of the Only One, in view of the emphasis on γεννᾶσθαι ἐκ θεοῦ (J 1:13 al.); in this case it would be analogous to πρωτότοκος (Ro 8:29; Col 1:15 al.)

If these men wanted wanted to say "a god" here, how would they have said it?

And what does Jesus' response tell us? How did he understand them?
 

Roger Thornhill

Well-known member
And where did BDAG get "a uniquely begotten deity" out of the word θεόν?

Or do they have a license to just make things up?
Just like you do.

The fact is that in the Greek of John 10:33 θεόν can be "a god" and so, no they did not make that up.

What I think they did do was interpret the context in this way:

Jesus quotes the Hebrew where some are called "gods." Some take it as humans a d some as His spirit sons.

Bauer evidently takes it as God's heavenly sons and sees that Jesus was one of them but unique in his sonship.

The reason for my OP was to get ideas as to why others thought Bauer meant, not to debate what it could mean.

Do you have a contribution in line with the intent of my OP?
 

Our Lord's God

Well-known member
Just like you do.

The fact is that in the Greek of John 10:33 θεόν can be "a god" and so, no they did not make that up.


That is not what I asked is it?

What I think they did do was interpret the context in this way:

Jesus quotes the Hebrew where some are called "gods." Some take it as humans a d some as His spirit sons.

Bauer evidently takes it as God's heavenly sons and sees that Jesus was one of them but unique in his sonship.

Bauer then needs to explain how they got the notion of "uniquely begotten" of the word θεόν, don't they?

The reason for my OP was to get ideas as to why others thought Bauer meant, not to debate what it could mean.

They meant to insert a theological notion into a word which the word itself does not express. It's obvious.

Do you have a contribution in line with the intent of my OP?
 

Roger Thornhill

Well-known member
That is not what I asked is it?



Bauer then needs to explain how they got the notion of "uniquely begotten" of the word θεόν, don't they?



They meant to insert a theological notion into a word which the word itself does not express. It's obvious.
Your responses and line of questions is also not what I asked for. So you are out of line and hijacking my thread.

So, if you don't have a response to my OP, then we are done.
 
Top