If Jesus is 'God' because he was called "son of God", "lord" and received prostrations then why not David?

cjab

Well-known member
Christ said He is God. The problem is:
....That Christ did not ever say "I am God." Stop telling porkies. "God" was a title that Christ reserved for his father alone.

Only after his ascension and after he was glorified did Jesus re-engage with the deific activities and responsibilities in ruling the world.
 
....That Christ did not ever say "I am God." Stop telling porkies. "God" was a title that Christ reserved for his father alone.

Only after his ascension and after he was glorified did Jesus re-engage with the deific activities and responsibilities in ruling the world.
Shulammite, you're a smart man. the fifth is your best way out..... (smile)/

:ninja:
Yup honor your father and mother - Jesus and Mary. I am a smart lady, thank you🥰
 
....That Christ did not ever say "I am God." Stop telling porkies. "God" was a title that Christ reserved for his father alone.

Only after his ascension and after he was glorified did Jesus re-engage with the deific activities and responsibilities in ruling the world.
See students, this is what it looks like when you are late to class🤪.......Lol!
 

cjab

Well-known member
See students, this is what it looks like when you are late to class🤪.......Lol!
You and all other modern Trinitarians use God adjectivally. That is why the NET bible says in Jn 1:1c, The Word was "fully God", as if God was adjectival. But this is a foolish translation, as even a native Greek theologian of high repute avers. "God" in the Greek isn't an adjective but a noun, and moreover a title for the Father in the mouth of Christ. Seems you need to go back to school and do some elementary Greek.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
No, that isn't according to the scriptures, for here is the very words of Jesus himself telling us otherwise.

John 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they might know you (he was praying to the Father) The ONLY True God and Jesus the Christ whom you have sent".


John 5:26 "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has given to the Son to have life in himself also".


John 6:57 "For just as The Living Father (The Living God) has sent me and I live because of the Father, so he who eats of me shall live because of me".
IOW The Son is The Living God.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
Yes Paul does and what you fail to see in 1 Corinthians 8:6, is that when Paul says there is only one God and then reveals him as the Father, this automatically eliminates any other person from being the one God including Jesus.

This is also true of Jesus as the one Kurios (not Yahweh but Kurios), for when Paul says that for us there is but one Lord and then identifies that Lord by the name and title Jesus Christ, that means that there is only one Lord Jesus Christ and not just one Lord period.

Therefore being God is Lord above Jesus Christ (the head of Christ is God), it reveals that Paul was making a distinction here between God as Lord and Jesus as Lord, otherwise he wouldn't have said "one Lord Jesus Christ".


For once Paul says one God and then reveals that one God as the Father and also says there is one Lord and reveals him as Jesus Christ, he is by this revealing that there is only one who is God and one who is the Lord Jesus Christ under God and appointed by God and which means that he is also making a distinction between God as the LORD and Jesus as the Lord under him.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
Yes Paul does and what you fail to see in 1 Corinthians 8:6, is that when Paul says there is only one God and then reveals him as the Father, this automatically eliminates any other person from being the one God including Jesus.

This is also true of Jesus as the one Kurios (not Yahweh but Kurios), for when Paul says that for us there is but one Lord and then identifies that Lord by the name and title Jesus Christ, that means that there is only one Lord Jesus Christ and not just one Lord period.

Therefore being God is Lord above Jesus Christ (the head of Christ is God), it reveals that Paul was making a distinction here between God as Lord and Jesus as Lord, otherwise he wouldn't have said "one Lord Jesus Christ".


For once Paul says one God and then reveals that one God as the Father and also says there is one Lord and reveals him as Jesus Christ, he is by this revealing that there is only one who is God and one who is the Lord Jesus Christ under God and appointed by God and which means that he is also making a distinction between God as the LORD and Jesus as the Lord under him.
ONE Lord who is under NO ONE.
The Lord is God and vice versa.
 
You and all other modern Trinitarians use God adjectivally. That is why the NET bible says in Jn 1:1c, The Word was "fully God", as if God was adjectival. But this is a foolish translation, as even a native Greek theologian of high repute avers. "God" in the Greek isn't an adjective but a noun, and moreover a title for the Father in the mouth of Christ. Seems you need to go back to school and do some elementary Greek.
Lol! It's all Greek to me as it is for everybody else. See, people like you act like you know something about Greek, when modern Greek is different from ancient Greek- as all modern day languages have evolved. Just like much of today's English, it too is far different than the prior and it's all English. Yet you would hard pressed to understand early English today if people were speaking it. It would sound all Greek to you! Lol!

What I find fascinating 🧐 is, as the Roman Greco era began, Greek was already evolved and still evolving in nuisance of the former. Even ancient Hebrew morphed into Aramaic, that was due to Greek influence. The same thing happened with ancient Greek as Latin became an influencing factor.

Point is, those who translated the Hebrew and Greek Septuagint to the Latin Vulgate did so correctly because most scholars spoke the languages of the regions. From that the English bibles came. So, when modern Greek linguistic teachers and students try to reinterpret what was done before modern Greek, well that old cliche rings true for even them-" It's all Greek to me". See, the Latin Vulgate is a correct interp of the Greek Septuagint because those scribes and scholars were closer to the ancient languages than we are today. It tends to be a Rabbinical Jew and Protestant thing to reinvent the wheel.

And guess what? Those who hold the oldest complete Bible know what I am saying is true. The Ethiopic Bible- its OT is a translation directly from Ancient Hebrew gifted to them by Solomon on behalf of Makeda the Queen of Sheba, along with children who can claim to be a direct line of the tribe of Judah. Any Jew who wants to know if they are , they would have to compare their genetic code to them because they have not been dispersed. No other Jews can even claim what they can for sure. Beta or not, no other Jewish groups can claim that.

Anyways, a bit off topic. When the Christ rejecting Jews recompiled their Tanakh after the destruction of the temple in 70 AD the Hebrew language had too already evolved and changed from the original. They would not be interpreting from original text. Why? Here's a video explaining that.


Anyway, since the Christian Jews primarly spoke Greek and Aramaic, ancient Hebrew was not the same and it was not Yiddish. Lol!
Lastly, you modernist insult all ancient scribes and scholars more versed in those languages. And you all actually do it on behalf of nonChristian "Jews" and their interest. Protestants love to pander. If not Protestant , SDA are just want to be Jews not Christian ones either. Like locust, they devour true doctrine before God and men and replace with Levitical practices and fables. I treat everyday as sacred and scripture says I can! Sabbath- a day of rest is for man, not man for the sabbath. Christians can choose whatever day they want to bless and call it holy! The day is as holy as it's keeper😎.
 
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cjab

Well-known member
Lol! It's all Greek to me as it is for everybody else. See, people like you act like you know something about Greek, when modern Greek is different from ancient Greek- as all modern day languages have evolved. Just like much of today's English, it too is far different than the prior and it's all English. Yet you would hard pressed to understand early English today if people were speaking it. It would sound all Greek to you! Lol!

What I find fascinating 🧐 is, as the Roman Greco era began, Greek was already evolved and still evolving in nuisance of the former. Even ancient Hebrew morphed into Aramaic, that was due to Greek influence. The same thing happened with ancient Greek as Latin became an influencing factor.

Point is, those who translated the Hebrew and Greek Septuagint to the Latin Vulgate did so correctly because most scholars spoke the languages of the regions.
Mere conjecture on your part. Jerome found that he needed to revise the whole of the Latin Old Testament from the Hebrew, because the existing old Latin translation was so bad.

Augustine would also beg to differ: he complains that many unauthorized Latin translations were floating around in his day due to there being so many translators, and that these differed. There was no authorized Latin version prior to the Vulgate. Thus the chaotic emergence of the Johannine Comma in the Latin, independently of the Greek, and before the Vulgate, with numerous Latin variations abounding of 1 John 5:7,8.

From that the English bibles came. So, when modern Greek linguistic teachers and students try to reinterpret what was done before modern Greek, well that old cliche rings true for even them-" It's all Greek to me". See, the Latin Vulgate is a correct interp of the Greek Septuagint because those scribes and scholars were closer to the ancient languages than we are today. It tends to be a Rabbinical Jew and Protestant thing to reinvent the wheel.

And guess what? Those who hold the oldest complete Bible know what I am saying is true. The Ethiopic Bible- its OT is a translation directly from Ancient Hebrew gifted to them by Solomon on behalf of Makeda the Queen of Sheba, along with children who can claim to be a direct line of the tribe of Judah. Any Jew who wants to know if they are , they would have to compare their genetic code to them because they have not been dispersed. No other Jews can even claim what they can for sure. Beta or not, no other Jewish groups can claim that.

Anyways, a bit off topic. When the Christ rejecting Jews recompiled their Tanakh after the destruction of the temple in 70 AD the Hebrew language had too already evolved and changed from the original. They would not be interpreting from original text. Why? Here's a video explaining that.


Anyway, since the Christian Jews primarly spoke Greek and Aramaic, ancient Hebrew was not the same and it was not Yiddish. Lol!
Lastly, you modernist insult all ancient scribes and scholars more versed in those languages. And you all actually do it on behalf of nonChristian "Jews" and their interest. Protestants love to pander. If not Protestant , SDA are just want to be Jews not Christian ones either. Like locust, they devour true doctrine before God and men and replace with Levitical practices and fables. I treat everyday as sacred and scripture says I can! Sabbath- a day of rest is for man, not man for the sabbath. Christians can choose whatever day they want to bless and call it holy! The day is as holy as it's keeper😎.
Your preference seems to be to insult others when you run out of things to say on topic. It's a bad habit.

It is beyond argument that "God" is a title of the Father throughout the whole of John's gospel, and in all the Johannine and Pauline epistles.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Presently, you are clueless. For every falsely applied scripture you find, to TRY and discredit other parts of scripture that say He is God, shows your lack of understanding. You must think the scriptures are an oxymoron? Seriously, you really need to hang it up. Christ said He is God. The problem is:

1. most self-proclaimed Theologians do not know Hebrew nor the meaning of Yeshua's/Jesus' titles. Not that you need to know Hebrew to understand the commonsense scriptures concerning totality of language but knowing customs is very important. Christians who are of Orthodoxy and Catholicism who do not know Hebrew (which would be the majority) can understand the plain language of scripture. But I digress, a place in scripture where it is clear Christ says He is God, is the account of the Feast of the Dedication.

There are many translations of the bible. From ancient Hebrew to the Greek, Latin, to Aramaic to Amharic and English. Each is correct and tells in their own language in different parts of scripture that Christ says He is God. If Christ says -His God, He is speaking in terms of His Titles Son of Man and Son of David. If He is saying, My Heavenly Father - He is still correct because He is the Son of God, begotten and not made. If He says He is God- He is correct because He is the Second Personification of God -revealed. He saying He is the Son of God, does not make Him any less God, just as if- a man is someone's son does not make him any less a woman's husband or a father to a son. God can perform as 1. Father, 2. Son, and 3. Holy Spirit. God can be a Holy Trinity and still be One.

In the Feast of the dedication account Christ enters by way of the East gate. It is prophesied in Ezekiel
Ezekiel 44:
The East Gate Assigned to the Prince
…2And the LORD said to me, “This gate is to remain shut. It shall not be opened, and no man shall enter through it, because the LORD, the God of Israel, has entered through it. Therefore, it will remain shut. 3 Only the prince himself may sit inside the gateway to eat in the presence of the LORD. He must enter by way of the portico of the gateway and go out the same way.”

This was fulfilled at the NT account:

John 10:
Jesus at the Feast of Dedication

22At that time the Feast of Dedication took place in Jerusalem. It was winter, 23and Jesus was walking in the temple courts in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24So the Jews gathered around Him and demanded, “How long will You keep us in suspense? If You are the Christ, tell us plainly.”

25“I already told you,” Jesus replied, “but you did not believe. The works I do in My Father’s name testify on My behalf. 26But because you are not My sheep, you refuse to believe. 27My sheep listen to My voice; I know them, and they follow Me. 28I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one can snatch them out of My hand. 29My Father who has given them to Me is greater than all. No one can snatch them out of My Father’s hand. 30I and the Father are one.”

31At this, the Jews again picked up stones to stone Him. 32But Jesus responded, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone Me?”

33“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”

Now, you might say YWI, " Christ never said to them He was God", but He did. See, the second temple was built according to the instructions given to Ezekiel from God, as was the first temple. Each Temple had a designated Gate for God alone. The East Gate symbolizes the Shinning One who's coming is as the glory of the sun, which rises in the east.

Isaiah 59:19 “So shall they fear the name of the LORD from the west, and his glory from the rising of the sun.

So, the East gate was for Him and clearly the prophet says He is the Lord God.


Therefore, Christ did say IN THE TEMPLE He is God by entering the Gate that is specifically for God. No Jew dare enter or exit that Gate, no Pharisee, no one! To do so would be blasphemy! However, Christ did enter and by doing so said " I Am God"!

Have you heard the phrase, " actions speak louder than words"? In this case Christ used BODY LANGUAGE and said," I AM, God". The Jews knew that and that is why they wanted to stone Him. Christ never had to vocalize anything. So, when they asked Him " why are you keeping us in suspense, plainly tell us are you the Christ?" They saw Him walk in by way of the East Gate, they just thought Him mad, for no man in his right mind would enter the Temple by that way. However, since we are not dealing with just some mere man Christ took the God stance.


When Christ answered " I did say it, but you did not believe Me" they knew He was owning what He said by way of BODY LANGUAGE in walking in by way of that gate! He existed it too that way when they attempted to stone Him. That is how He escaped them. They would not dare follow Him by way of that Gate because it was only for God, and they were mere men!
LOL, sorry but your own verse in Isaiah 44:2 proves you don't know what you are talking, for in it, Isaiah makes a clear distinction between Yahweh God who he states has already entered into the gate and his coming prince who was alone allowed to enter in after Yahweh God.

Therefore nowhere in this chapter does Jesus ever say he is God but only proves he is the prince that Isaiah and the prophets said would come and just like Daniel also speaks of in Daniel 9:25-26.

Furthermore, the reason why they wanted to stone him was because he called God his Father and it states that very clearly in the context.

This also proves that they weren't being led by the word of God in their own OT scriptures, for both David and Solomon were called by God his Son, first David in Psalm 2:7 and then after David, Solomon as per 2 Samuel 7:14.

The Jews knew very well what it really meant when Jesus called himself God's Son and God his Father and it never meant that he was God or equal to God but rather that he was that promised and greatest descendant from the descendants of David to inherit the throne over God's people and also the whole world.

Being you think you know so much, suppose you show us even one verse from the OT where to be called God's Son in the singular it meant that that one was God or equal unto God?


You aren't going to find even one, for that is not what being called God's Son in the singular ever meant and therefore just like Jesus said, it wasn't from the word of God that they were getting this idea but rather from the word of their real and who Jesus identified as the Devil in John 8.

Then we also have Jesus quoting Psalm 82:6 to his accusers, where God called them who were accusing Jesus gods and Jesus only said that God was his Father and never even called himself God at all.
 
Mere conjecture on your part. Jerome found that he needed to revise the whole of the Latin Old Testament from the Hebrew, because the existing old Latin translation was so bad.

Augustine would also beg to differ: he complains that many unauthorized Latin translations were floating around in his day due to there being so many translators, and that these differed. There was no authorized Latin version prior to the Vulgate. Thus the chaotic emergence of the Johannine Comma in the Latin, independently of the Greek, and before the Vulgate, with numerous Latin variations abounding of 1 John 5:7,8.


Your preference seems to be to insult others when you run out of things to say on topic. It's a bad habit.

It is beyond argument that "God" is a title of the Father throughout the whole of John's gospel, and in all the Johannine and Pauline epistles.
You are entitled to your opinion. If you find the truth insulting carry on in what you are. No skin off of my back. Christ did lose some for you tho. If you decide you like His truth -( that He is God) then come around, He will only wait so long tho.
Lord God Jesus is King!
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Presently, you are clueless. For every falsely applied scripture you find, to TRY and discredit other parts of scripture that say He is God, shows your lack of understanding. You must think the scriptures are an oxymoron? Seriously, you really need to hang it up. Christ said He is God. The problem is:

1. most self-proclaimed Theologians do not know Hebrew nor the meaning of Yeshua's/Jesus' titles. Not that you need to know Hebrew to understand the commonsense scriptures concerning totality of language but knowing customs is very important. Christians who are of Orthodoxy and Catholicism who do not know Hebrew (which would be the majority) can understand the plain language of scripture. But I digress, a place in scripture where it is clear Christ says He is God, is the account of the Feast of the Dedication.

There are many translations of the bible. From ancient Hebrew to the Greek, Latin, to Aramaic to Amharic and English. Each is correct and tells in their own language in different parts of scripture that Christ says He is God. If Christ says -His God, He is speaking in terms of His Titles Son of Man and Son of David. If He is saying, My Heavenly Father - He is still correct because He is the Son of God, begotten and not made. If He says He is God- He is correct because He is the Second Personification of God -revealed. He saying He is the Son of God, does not make Him any less God, just as if- a man is someone's son does not make him any less a woman's husband or a father to a son. God can perform as 1. Father, 2. Son, and 3. Holy Spirit. God can be a Holy Trinity and still be One.

In the Feast of the dedication account Christ enters by way of the East gate. It is prophesied in Ezekiel
Ezekiel 44:
The East Gate Assigned to the Prince
…2And the LORD said to me, “This gate is to remain shut. It shall not be opened, and no man shall enter through it, because the LORD, the God of Israel, has entered through it. Therefore, it will remain shut. 3 Only the prince himself may sit inside the gateway to eat in the presence of the LORD. He must enter by way of the portico of the gateway and go out the same way.”

This was fulfilled at the NT account:

John 10:
Jesus at the Feast of Dedication

22At that time the Feast of Dedication took place in Jerusalem. It was winter, 23and Jesus was walking in the temple courts in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24So the Jews gathered around Him and demanded, “How long will You keep us in suspense? If You are the Christ, tell us plainly.”

25“I already told you,” Jesus replied, “but you did not believe. The works I do in My Father’s name testify on My behalf. 26But because you are not My sheep, you refuse to believe. 27My sheep listen to My voice; I know them, and they follow Me. 28I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one can snatch them out of My hand. 29My Father who has given them to Me is greater than all. No one can snatch them out of My Father’s hand. 30I and the Father are one.”

31At this, the Jews again picked up stones to stone Him. 32But Jesus responded, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone Me?”

33“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”

Now, you might say YWI, " Christ never said to them He was God", but He did. See, the second temple was built according to the instructions given to Ezekiel from God, as was the first temple. Each Temple had a designated Gate for God alone. The East Gate symbolizes the Shinning One who's coming is as the glory of the sun, which rises in the east.

Isaiah 59:19 “So shall they fear the name of the LORD from the west, and his glory from the rising of the sun.

So, the East gate was for Him and clearly the prophet says He is the Lord God.


Therefore, Christ did say IN THE TEMPLE He is God by entering the Gate that is specifically for God. No Jew dare enter or exit that Gate, no Pharisee, no one! To do so would be blasphemy! However, Christ did enter and by doing so said " I Am God"!

Have you heard the phrase, " actions speak louder than words"? In this case Christ used BODY LANGUAGE and said," I AM, God". The Jews knew that and that is why they wanted to stone Him. Christ never had to vocalize anything. So, when they asked Him " why are you keeping us in suspense, plainly tell us are you the Christ?" They saw Him walk in by way of the East Gate, they just thought Him mad, for no man in his right mind would enter the Temple by that way. However, since we are not dealing with just some mere man Christ took the God stance.


When Christ answered " I did say it, but you did not believe Me" they knew He was owning what He said by way of BODY LANGUAGE in walking in by way of that gate! He existed it too that way when they attempted to stone Him. That is how He escaped them. They would not dare follow Him by way of that Gate because it was only for God, and they were mere men!
You ought to go to the Bible hub commentaries on this verse, for you seem to be totally ignorant of the fact all men with the exception of the Prince were told not to go in through that gate and no where is it ever revealed that the Prince is also God and in fact, it makes a distinction between him and God right in the passage itself.
 
Mere conjecture on your part. Jerome found that he needed to revise the whole of the Latin Old Testament from the Hebrew, because the existing old Latin translation was so bad.

Augustine would also beg to differ: he complains that many unauthorized Latin translations were floating around in his day due to there being so many translators, and that these differed. There was no authorized Latin version prior to the Vulgate. Thus the chaotic emergence of the Johannine Comma in the Latin, independently of the Greek, and before the Vulgate, with numerous Latin variations abounding of 1 John 5:7,8.


Your preference seems to be to insult others when you run out of things to say on topic. It's a bad habit.

It is beyond argument that "God" is a title of the Father throughout the whole of John's gospel, and in all the Johannine and Pauline epistles.
Good for Jerome! Still is Latin right? And "unauthorized" is key. Seems you have no issue with authorized right or you would not have brought it up. I think the final say is the Lord's "And first , this gospel shall be preached throughtout the world". You let God take care of His business and you continue about yours outside of Him. See, you're a dollar short and a day late. The gospel has already been preached throughout the world and here you come telling everyone it wasn't and they all heard it wrong. Get the picture!

Christ came over 2000yrs ago and between then and now many heard the right gospel.But nooo, here you and your sect come around in the 20-21st centuries AD trying to reinvent the wheel! Lol! Ever heard of-" If it aint broke don't fix it"? The present Bibles with their Various Canons as interpreted from the books for mentioned are/and have served God's purpose. Yet here you and your type roll up at the end talking-" No, no ,no you all got it all wrong." If you be right then Christ be a liar and only by you and your type is now finally the gospel spread! Lol! As if! Please.

Christ is God today, yesterday and tomorrow and you-a locust.Seems even the flawed Latin Vulgate translation still has one up on you because it clearly was used to teach that Christ is God. Since you agree with Jerome on that then you must know he knew Christ was God and wasn't confused about that one bit bad interp or not! Yet you, centuries removed from a truth he would attest to, and all would who came to believe moving forward centuries before you, BINGO yeah, truth is finally coming out with your sect that Christ is not God.
Ya can't make this stuff up!🤪😂🤣
 
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johnny guitar

Well-known member
Mere conjecture on your part. Jerome found that he needed to revise the whole of the Latin Old Testament from the Hebrew, because the existing old Latin translation was so bad.

Augustine would also beg to differ: he complains that many unauthorized Latin translations were floating around in his day due to there being so many translators, and that these differed. There was no authorized Latin version prior to the Vulgate. Thus the chaotic emergence of the Johannine Comma in the Latin, independently of the Greek, and before the Vulgate, with numerous Latin variations abounding of 1 John 5:7,8.


Your preference seems to be to insult others when you run out of things to say on topic. It's a bad habit.

It is beyond argument that "God" is a title of the Father throughout the whole of John's gospel, and in all the Johannine and Pauline epistles.
Total falsehood.
John 1:1 alone refers to The Son as God.
 
You ought to go to the Bible hub commentaries on this verse, for you seem to be totally ignorant of the fact all men with the exception of the Prince were told not to go in through that gate and no where is it ever revealed that the Prince is also God and in fact, it makes a distinction between him and God right in the passage itself.
No, it simply calls the Lord God 'prince' because He is a prince too. That is why Isaiah calls Him " the Prince of Peace. Now since you have been rude toward God by calling His prophets liars and Him as well let me correct you!

The title of Prince is concerning - being a close male monarch of the throne of David. Hence, why the Psalm of David states " God will raise a horn up from David" etc.... go google it! Shame on you! Christ is Lord God Almighty! Just like it says in Isaiah. Blessed be the holy prophets of God! You sound like the Jews who slayed the prophets! Shame, shame I know your name.....
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
No, it simply calls the Lord God 'prince' because He is a prince too. That is why Isaiah calls Him " the Prince of Peace. Now since you have been rude toward God by calling His prophets liars and Him as well let me correct you!

The title of Prince is concerning - being a close male monarch of the throne of David. Hence, why the Psalm of David states " God will raise a horn up from David" etc.... go google it! Shame on you! Christ is Lord God Almighty! Just like it says in Isaiah. Blessed be the holy prophets of God! You sound like the Jews who slayed the prophets! Shame, shame I know your name.....
LOL, for it says and I quote "he may sit there and eat bread before Yahweh God" and nowhere in any of your verses does it state that the prince is also Yahweh God, that is nothing but conjecture on your part because of your preconceived false indoctrination and bias.
 
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LOL, for it says and I quote "he may sit there and eat bread before Yahweh God" and nowhere in any of your verses does it state that the prince is also Yahweh God, that is noting but conjecture on your part because of your preconceived false indoctrination and bias.
Now from what book is that pretext quote? Problem is every bible from the first translation says exactly what I posted. You may have a modified one which fits the Christ hating Jew's version or SDA version but the original versions I have from true Christ loving Jews still say what I posted, allllll daaaaaay looooonnnng everyday.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Now from what book is that pretext quote? Problem is every bible from the first translation says exactly what I posted. You may have a modified one which fits the Christ hating Jew's version or SDA version but the original versions I have from true Christ loving Jews still say what I posted, allllll daaaaaay looooonnnng everyday.


There you go, look at all of the verses which says that the prince may eat bread before the LORD.

This very clearly shows that Ezekiel made a clear distinction between Yahweh and the Prince

One cannot be said to hate Christ when he takes Christ's words for what he himself said in verses like John 17:3 and John 5:26 and John 6:57 and Matthew 24:36 and which by the way, in Isaiah 46:9-10 God uses his knowing all things from the end to the beginning as the very proof that he alone and no other is God.

But in Matthew 24:36 not only did Jesus tell us that he didn't know the day and hour of the time of the end and his return but that only the one single person of the Father knows it period and which eliminates Jesus from knowing it no matter what nature you want to falsely claim he was speaking from.
 


There you go, look at all of the verses which says that the prince may eat bread before the LORD.

This very clearly shows that Ezekiel made a clear distinction between Yahweh and the Prince

One cannot be said to hate Christ when he takes Christ's words for what he himself said in verses like John 17:3 and John 5:26 and John 6:57 and Matthew 24:36 and which by the way, in Isaiah 44:6 God uses his knowing all things from the end to the beginning as the very proof that he alone and no other is God.

But in Matthew 24:36 not only did Jesus tell us that he didn't know the day and hour of the time of the end and his return but that only the one single person of the Father knows it period and which eliminates Jesus from knowing it no matter what suppose two natures he was speaking from.
No kidding the prince will eat bread and before that? Like really? Do you think pretexting and ignoring the verses it follows makes you right?

Lol! Sometimes ya just gotta walk away. Already answered all this. Enjoy spinning your wheels.😁
 
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