If Jesus is 'God' because he was called "son of God", "lord" and received prostrations then why not David?

too long
too long of a mess
nope, it too shorts for U, becauase you have been caught in a LIE, we suggest U copy and paste it to look at it Later.... don't worry it want change.... :ROFLMAO: now, you didn't know Matthews 19:4 was even in the bible ... did U? well it has bitten U in the but ... t .. lol, lol, lol.

:ninja:
 
ok Shulammite, u up next for the but ... t biting. your answer please, is the person in John 1:3 is the same one person in Isaiah 44:24.

if I was U, I would take the fifth to keep from incriminating yourself..... :eek: YIKES!

:ninja:
 
nope, it too shorts for U, becauase you have been caught in a LIE, we suggest U copy and paste it to look at it Later.... don't worry it want change.... :ROFLMAO: now, you didn't know Matthews 19:4 was even in the bible ... did U? well it has bitten U in the but ... t .. lol, lol, lol.

:ninja:

it's annoying reading your posts, so i don't bother doing that much.

signing out

ps- they're awfully weird as well
 
it's annoying reading your posts, so i don't bother doing that much.

signing out

ps- they're awfully weird as well
so, we can take this as u pleading the fifth? but it's 2 LATE ..... (smile), lol, lol, lol.... :eek: YIKES!

so from now on..... talk to the 🖐 hand. o_O

:ninja:
 
Is not the Lord JESUS the "EVERLASTING FATHER?" Isaiah 9:6 YES, or No. your answer Please if not please explain.
An unintelligent question, because you are using "the" in an entirely bogus sense to confound two separate Hebrew constructs, neither of which even contains the definite article "the". For "the" Father in relation to YHWH isn't made out. Rather the Hebrew terminology is "our" Father.

As to this sense, which is the sense that Jesus used in deferring to his Father, it appears in, e.g. Isaiah 64:8 ("But now, YHWH, You are 'our' Father"), but such is not made out in Isaiah 9:6, because the construct is NOT אָבִ֣ינוּ (’ā-ḇî-nū) (Father of us), but אֲבִיעַ֖ד ’ă-ḇî-‘aḏ (Father of eternity).

Father of eternity finds its Greek equivalent in Rev 22:13 "first & the last etc", which is a designation qua time, i.e. a progenitor, or originator (cf. Col 1:16, 17)., and not offered in the sense of Jesus being someone's spiritual Father (the NT sense reflecting Jesus's usage of Father).

So your gnosticism is well exposed: you seek to sow confusion by confounding different usages of "Father" to fabricate the false doctrine of Sabellianism.
 
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Asinine comment.
it's double for U because U have 2 Father. Asinine 2.0? ,,,, lol, ,lol, lol.... oh dear people are into polytheism and don't even know it.

I thought the children of Israel of the OT was Ignorant, but I see we have their kinfolk with us today.

:ninja:
 
An unintelligent question, because you are using "the" in an entirely bogus sense to confound two separate Hebrew constructs, neither of which even contains the definite article "the". For "the" Father in relation to YHWH isn't made out. Rather the Hebrew terminology is "our" Father.

As to this sense, which is the sense that Jesus used in deferring to his Father, it appears in, e.g. Isaiah 64:8 ("But now, YHWH, You are 'our' Father"), but such is not made out in Isaiah 9:6, because the construct is NOT אָבִ֣ינוּ (’ā-ḇî-nū) (Father of us), but אֲבִיעַ֖ד ’ă-ḇî-‘aḏ (Father of eternity).

Father of eternity finds its Greek equivalent in Rev 22:13 "first & the last etc", which is a designation qua time, i.e. a progenitor, or originator (cf. Col 1:16, 17)., and not offered in the sense of Jesus being someone's spiritual Father (the NT sense reflecting Jesus's usage of Father).

So your gnosticism is well exposed: you seek to sow confusion by confounding different usages of "Father" to fabricate the false doctrine of Sabellianism.
Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom."

is the definite article use of the Son here? yes, is this son in Isaiah 9:6 the, the, the MIGHTY God? unless of course u got one stuff somewhere else... lol, lol, lol, oh dear. such Ignorance.

:ninja:
 
Difference is tho, Christ is God and that is so according to the scriptures alone. And every actual Hebrew knows the Messiah must be God based on the language of OT prophesy. There is no point overlooked concerning your agenda.
No, that isn't according to the scriptures, for here is the very words of Jesus himself telling us otherwise.

John 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they might know you (he was praying to the Father) The ONLY True God and Jesus the Christ whom you have sent".


John 5:26 "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has given to the Son to have life in himself also".


John 6:57 "For just as The Living Father (The Living God) has sent me and I live because of the Father, so he who eats of me shall live because of me".
 
Lol! No Paul doesn't. You do but Paul, no way. Keep pretexting. Those claiming to be sheep sure do have some sharp teeth, shnarkle even.
Yes Paul does and what you fail to see in 1 Corinthians 8:6, is that when Paul says there is only one God and then reveals him as the Father, this automatically eliminates any other person from being the one God including Jesus.

This is also true of Jesus as the one Kurios (not Yahweh but Kurios), for when Paul says that for us there is but one Lord and then identifies that Lord by the name and title Jesus Christ, that means that there is only one Lord Jesus Christ and not just one Lord period.

Therefore being God is Lord above Jesus Christ (the head of Christ is God), it reveals that Paul was making a distinction here between God as Lord and Jesus as Lord, otherwise he wouldn't have said "one Lord Jesus Christ".


For once Paul says one God and then reveals that one God as the Father and also says there is one Lord and reveals him as Jesus Christ, he is by this revealing that there is only one who is God and one who is the Lord Jesus Christ under God and appointed by God and which means that he is also making a distinction between God as the LORD and Jesus as the Lord under him.
 
No, that isn't according to the scriptures, for here is the very words of Jesus himself telling us otherwise.

John 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they might know you (he was praying to the Father) The ONLY True God and Jesus the Christ whom you have sent".


John 5:26 "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has given to the Son to have life in himself also".


John 6:57 "For just as The Living Father (The Living God) has sent me and I live because of the Father, so he who eats of me shall live because of me".
Presently, you are clueless. For every falsely applied scripture you find, to TRY and discredit other parts of scripture that say He is God, shows your lack of understanding. You must think the scriptures are an oxymoron? Seriously, you really need to hang it up. Christ said He is God. The problem is:

1. most self-proclaimed Theologians do not know Hebrew nor the meaning of Yeshua's/Jesus' titles. Not that you need to know Hebrew to understand the commonsense scriptures concerning totality of language but knowing customs is very important. Christians who are of Orthodoxy and Catholicism who do not know Hebrew (which would be the majority) can understand the plain language of scripture. But I digress, a place in scripture where it is clear Christ says He is God, is the account of the Feast of the Dedication.

There are many translations of the bible. From ancient Hebrew to the Greek, Latin, to Aramaic to Amharic and English. Each is correct and tells in their own language in different parts of scripture that Christ says He is God. If Christ says -His God, He is speaking in terms of His Titles Son of Man and Son of David. If He is saying, My Heavenly Father - He is still correct because He is the Son of God, begotten and not made. If He says He is God- He is correct because He is the Second Personification of God -revealed. He saying He is the Son of God, does not make Him any less God, just as if- a man is someone's son does not make him any less a woman's husband or a father to a son. God can perform as 1. Father, 2. Son, and 3. Holy Spirit. God can be a Holy Trinity and still be One.

In the Feast of the dedication account Christ enters by way of the East gate. It is prophesied in Ezekiel
Ezekiel 44:
The East Gate Assigned to the Prince
…2And the LORD said to me, “This gate is to remain shut. It shall not be opened, and no man shall enter through it, because the LORD, the God of Israel, has entered through it. Therefore, it will remain shut. 3 Only the prince himself may sit inside the gateway to eat in the presence of the LORD. He must enter by way of the portico of the gateway and go out the same way.”

This was fulfilled at the NT account:

John 10:
Jesus at the Feast of Dedication

22At that time the Feast of Dedication took place in Jerusalem. It was winter, 23and Jesus was walking in the temple courts in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24So the Jews gathered around Him and demanded, “How long will You keep us in suspense? If You are the Christ, tell us plainly.”

25“I already told you,” Jesus replied, “but you did not believe. The works I do in My Father’s name testify on My behalf. 26But because you are not My sheep, you refuse to believe. 27My sheep listen to My voice; I know them, and they follow Me. 28I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one can snatch them out of My hand. 29My Father who has given them to Me is greater than all. No one can snatch them out of My Father’s hand. 30I and the Father are one.”

31At this, the Jews again picked up stones to stone Him. 32But Jesus responded, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone Me?”

33“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”

Now, you might say YWI, " Christ never said to them He was God", but He did. See, the second temple was built according to the instructions given to Ezekiel from God, as was the first temple. Each Temple had a designated Gate for God alone. The East Gate symbolizes the Shinning One who's coming is as the glory of the sun, which rises in the east.

Isaiah 59:19 “So shall they fear the name of the LORD from the west, and his glory from the rising of the sun.

So, the East gate was for Him and clearly the prophet says He is the Lord God.


Therefore, Christ did say IN THE TEMPLE He is God by entering the Gate that is specifically for God. No Jew dare enter or exit that Gate, no
Pharisee, no one! To do so would be blasphemy! However, Christ did enter and by doing so said " I Am God"!

Have you heard the phrase, " actions speak louder than words"? In this case Christ used BODY LANGUAGE and said," I AM, God". The Jews knew that and that is why they wanted to stone Him. Christ never had to vocalize anything. So, when they asked Him " why are you keeping us in suspense, plainly tell us are you the Christ?" They saw Him walk in by way of the East Gate, they just thought Him mad, for no man in his right mind would enter the Temple by that way. However, since we are not dealing with just some mere man Christ took the God stance.


When Christ answered " I did say it, but you did not believe Me" they knew He was owning what He said by way of BODY LANGUAGE in walking in by way of that gate! He existed it too that way when they attempted to stone Him. That is how He escaped them. They would not dare follow Him by way of that Gate because it was only for God, and they were mere men!

Yahweh will only increase those who actually believe.
 
How U Know? ...... (smile)

:ninja:
You could be possessed by a plural. That is something to consider. LOL! This is a forum tho, lots of LARPING to gain some treasures. But a plurality is possible in you.

Mark 5:
The Demons and the Pigs
…8For Jesus had already declared, “Come out of this man, you unclean spirit!” 9“What is your name?” Jesus asked. “My name is Legion,” he replied, “for we are many.” 10And he begged Jesus repeatedly not to send them out of that region.…
 
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