Ongyo no Kiheiji
Member
If Jesus and his Father are the same God, how is there a "God of our Lord Jesus Christ" (eg Matthew 27:46; Ephesians 1:17; Revelation 1:6; Revelation 3:12)?
If They Are The Same God
- Thread starter Ongyo no Kiheiji
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Tanachreader
Active member
God is addressing his SON when he says ”thy throne, O GOD….”, and if God the Father can call his son GOD, then so can we.
Yahchristian
Member
Matthew 27:46... And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
YHWH immanent in the form of a human was speaking to transcendent YHWH.
So it is YHWH in one form speaking to YHWH in another form.
When you watch a video of yourself speaking, who is speaking to you?
I say that you and the person in the video are the same person, so it is one form of you speaking to another form of you.
P.S.
Are YOU able to provide an overview of what you believe? Here is mine...
For this creation, YHWH God (the only one who transcends all creations) determined to create a universe with a kingdom of redeemed humans (living souls) for his glory where he would reign as a living soul himself. The Scriptures describe how God would accomplish his plan. In an instant, transcendent God (called God the Father) created the supernatural and space-time of this universe and also became immanent as a spirit (called the Spirit of God) and in the form of a living soul (called the Word of God) with a glorious body. God the Father then created all things within the universe by the power of the Spirit of God commanded by the Word of God. But whereas God created a human spirit and soul for each of us, God himself as the Word became the human spirit and soul of Jesus. At his conception, Jesus' glorious body was changed to a mortal body to be made like us so he could make reconciliation for our sins. At his resurrection, Jesus' mortal body was changed back to a glorious body and he will also give each of his elect a glorious body when he returns to reign in his kingdom forever.
Ongyo no Kiheiji
Member
Hebrews 1:8 cannot be used to say that God refers to His son as "God" for three reasons:
1) this is a quote from Psalm 45:6 where an Israelite king is being addressed(, and Psalm 45 shows this king was not "God"),
2) this text can be translated in multiple ways, and
3) Hebrews 1:9
Nevertheless, I'm not sure what anything you posted has to do with the OP.
Tanachreader
Active member
Doesn’t speak of Solomon here,but of a far greater king, who is not only a man, but the mighty God, Isaiah 9:6
Unfortunately Nothing can be done to convince you to take the following literally you have picked your path like others who do not know Jesus.
If you walked in the Spirit you would know who Jesus is.
John 10:16
I have other sheep, which are not of this fold. I must bring them also, and they will hear my voice. They will become one flock with one shepherd.
John 10:27
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me.
Luke 3:16
John answered, saying unto [them] all, I indeed baptize you with water; but one mightier than I cometh, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire:
Ongyo no Kiheiji
Member
Psalm 45 was not about Jesus, but about Solomon. (The writer of Hebrews applied two verses regarding Solomon to Jesus.)
John 20:31:
Such is what I believe--that which Scripture clearly states.
johnny guitar
Active member
T
The Father is The God of Jesus Christ The MAN, NOT Jesus Christ The Son of God The Father.
johnny guitar
Active member
Psalm 45 refers to the King as God, i.e. The Divine King of Israel.
This text is translated ONE way in ALL Bibles.
Hebrews 1:9 refers to Christ The MAN, just as 1:8 refers to Christ The Son of God.
johnny guitar
Active member
Yep, Jesus Christ is The Divine Son of God.