In John 8:28, do “me” and “he” refer to the same “who”?

[Yahchristian]

As Trinitarian theologian and apologist Norman Geisler has explained it…

While essence is what you are, person is who you are. So God is one “what” but three “who’s.”

Trinitarians…

In John 8:28, do “me” and “he” refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

 

[johnny guitar]

As Trinitarian theologian and apologist Norman Geisler has explained it…


Trinitarians…

In John 8:28, do “me” and “he” refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

Both pronouns refer to Jesus Christ.

 

[Yahchristian]

Both pronouns refer to Jesus Christ.

That is interesting since Trinitarians insist someone saying “I” and “you” cannot be referring to the same Person..

I would like to hear from all of Johnny Guitar’s fellow Trinitarians…

In John 8:28, do “me” and “he” refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

 

[johnny guitar]

That is interesting since Trinitarians insist someone saying “I” and “you” cannot be referring to the same Person..

I would like to hear from all of Johnny Guitar’s fellow Trinitarians…

In John 8:28, do “me” and “he” refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

NO He in this passage.
Obviously me refers to Christ.

 

[The Real John Milton]

As Trinitarian theologian and apologist Norman Geisler has explained it…


Trinitarians…

In John 8:28, do “me” and “he” refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

εἶπεν οὖν ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ὅταν ὑψώσητε τὸν Υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, τότε γνώσεσθε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, καὶ ἀπ’ ἐμαυτοῦ ποιῶ οὐδέν, ἀλλὰ καθὼς ἐδίδαξέν με ὁ Πατὴρ, ταῦτα λαλῶ.

There is no personal pronoun "he" in the original Greek, but a predicate pronoun (a demonstrative pronoun) is assumed. So the text actually reads as follows -- Ὅταν ὑψώσητε τὸν Υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, τότε γνώσεσθε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι (οὗτος).....

 

[Yahchristian]

NO He in this passage.

There is no personal pronoun "he" in the original Greek, but a predicate pronoun (a demonstrative pronoun) is assumed.

Concerning English Bibles...

In John 8:28, do you underestand “me” and “he” to refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

 

[johnny guitar]

Concerning English Bibles...

In John 8:28, do you underestand “me” and “he” to refer to the same “who”?

John 8:28… Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

I say Yes.

Refer to the same Person: Jesus Christ.