In The Beggining

No he wouldnt, He has millions of fallen angels( demons) working for him. At Daniel 10:12-14 a demon stopped Gods angel for 21 days, Michael had to come intervene---That is power, satan is more powerful than that demon.
Fine, that is different than the power Jesus possesses. You cannot compare the two. So your comparison is flawed.
Either case, your interpretation of John, 17:3 makes Jesus a false God, in John 1:1 regardless, if Jesus is fully God or some inferior deity, in comparison to God.
 
Fine, that is different than the power Jesus possesses. You cannot compare the two. So your comparison is flawed.
Either case, your interpretation of John, 17:3 makes Jesus a false God, in John 1:1 regardless, if Jesus is fully God or some inferior deity, in comparison to God.
I didnt compare them. I said the usage of plain Theos when Ho Theos is in the same paragraph = small g god.
 
I didnt compare them. I said the usage of plain Theos when Ho Theos is in the same paragraph = small g god.
Ok, from the immediate text we conclude it’s Satan and warrants a lower case g.
1. What in
John 1:1a In the beginning was the Word
John 1:1b And the word was with God
Warrants lower case g in
John 1:1c And the word was god.
The answer can only be derived from Jn 1:1a or b.
And this still doesn’t address your interpretation of John 17:3 which makes Jesus a false god in John 1:1 , regardless if Jesus is God or god.
 
Not every rendering of Lord. You have to look up the verse in Hebrew to see what word translates to Lord.

Here oh Israel, our Lord, our God our Lord is one.
Lord translates from Adonia.
Every spot in OT, nearly 6800 where GOD or LORD all capitols( in English) YHWH( Jehovah) belongs. God or LORD was not inspired to be there by God. Wicked men by satans will who feared taking Gods name in vain altered Gods inspired word. They had no right. The righteous do not fear taking his name in vain and Love his name and use his name as he wants.
 
Ok, from the immediate text we conclude it’s Satan and warrants a lower case g.
1. What in
John 1:1a In the beginning was the Word
John 1:1b And the word was with God
Warrants lower case g in
John 1:1c And the word was god.
The answer can only be derived from Jn 1:1a or b.
And this still doesn’t address your interpretation of John 17:3 which makes Jesus a false god in John 1:1 , regardless if Jesus is God or god.

None called small g god, is God. Its your false reasoning thinking it is. It means has godlike qualities. One translation had was godlike in the last line at John 1:1.
 
Ok, from the immediate text we conclude it’s Satan and warrants a lower case g.
1. What in
John 1:1a In the beginning was the Word
John 1:1b And the word was with God
Warrants lower case g in
John 1:1c And the word was god.
The answer can only be derived from Jn 1:1a or b.
And this still doesn’t address your interpretation of John 17:3 which makes Jesus a false god in John 1:1 , regardless if Jesus is God or god.
Amazing that he admits when it says the Word was God and who would be Jesus only warrants a lower case g.
 
Every spot in OT, nearly 6800 where GOD or LORD all capitols( in English) YHWH( Jehovah) belongs. God or LORD was not inspired to be there by God. Wicked men by satans will who feared taking Gods name in vain altered Gods inspired word. They had no right. The righteous do not fear taking his name in vain and Love his name and use his name as he wants.
You cannot have it both ways.
1. There are no capitals or lower case in Hebrew, so whether the word is capital or not, this did not originate from the original text.
2. Your translation rule is not universal or used universally by the WTS.
From the NWT
Jehovah declared to my Lord:“Sit at my right hand.
Notice the capital. L
 
None called small g god, is God. It’s your false reasoning thinking it is. It means has godlike qualities. One translation had was godlike in the last line at John 1:1.
Ok.
1. What in
John 1:1a In the beginning was the Word
John 1:1b And the word was with God
Warrants John 1:1c And the word was “god like”.
The answer can only be derived from Jn 1:1a or b.
And this still doesn’t address your interpretation of John 17:3 which makes Jesus a false god in John 1:1 , regardless if Jesus is God or god like.
 
You cannot have it both ways.
1. There are no capitals or lower case in Hebrew, so whether the word is capital or not, this did not originate from the original text.
2. Your translation rule is not universal or used universally by the WTS.
From the NWT
Jehovah declared to my Lord:“Sit at my right hand.
Notice the capital. L
One capitol L is Not LORD--it is not a JW rule it is fact that every scholar knows is fact. nearly 6800 places YHWH belongs in the OT, over 200 spots quoted in the NT the name belongs as well.
 
Ok.
1. What in
John 1:1a In the beginning was the Word
John 1:1b And the word was with God
Warrants John 1:1c And the word was “god like”.
The answer can only be derived from Jn 1:1a or b.
And this still doesn’t address your interpretation of John 17:3 which makes Jesus a false god in John 1:1 , regardless if Jesus is God or god like.
Its your false reasoning making it that way. Jesus was 100% clear-The one who sent him( Father) is THE ONLY TRUE GOD-capitol G .
 
Its your false reasoning making it that way. Jesus was 100% clear-The one who sent him( Father) is THE ONLY TRUE GOD-capitol G .
It’s not false reasoning, John, 1:1 is a illogical argument.
Premise one. In the beginning was the Word
Premise two.And the word was with God.
Conclusion. The word was god like.

What from premise one or premise two brings you to the conclusion that Jesus is god like.

You cannot read anything into it. The verse stands alone.
 
It’s not false reasoning, John, 1:1 is a illogical argument.
Premise one. In the beginning was the Word
Premise two.And the word was with God.
Conclusion. The word was god like.

What from premise one or premise two brings you to the conclusion that Jesus is god like.

You cannot read anything into it. The verse stands alone.
Because God did all the powerful works through Jesus-Acts 2:22, 1 Cor 8:5-6--making him godlike. He cured the blind, deaf, etc, raised a little girl and Lazarus from death, etc--God did it through him. Just like it was God who parted the red sea and caused those 10 plagues, but he did it through Moses.
 
Because God did all the powerful works through Jesus-Acts 2:22, 1 Cor 8:5-6--making him godlike. He cured the blind, deaf, etc, raised a little girl and Lazarus from death, etc--God did it through him. Just like it was God who parted the red sea and caused those 10 plagues, but he did it through Moses.

You’re missing the point. John, 1:1 stands alone. The conclusion can only be derived from the verse. Otherwise you have a religious worldview that practices circular reasoning.
A is true because of B
Bis true because of C
C is true because of D
D is true because of A.

The Gospel of John is based on the thesis which is the first 18 verses. The thesis is anchored in the first verse. How you interpret the first vs is how you will filter the Gospel of John. If you conclude from the first vs that Jesus is godlike then that’s how you read the Gospel of John. And if you conclude that Jesus is God in the first verse then that is how you will filter the book.

Again what in the two premises brings you to the conclusion that Jesus is godlike in Jn 1:1c?
 
You’re missing the point. John, 1:1 stands alone. The conclusion can only be derived from the verse. Otherwise you have a religious worldview that practices circular reasoning.
A is true because of B
Bis true because of C
C is true because of D
D is true because of A.

The Gospel of John is based on the thesis which is the first 18 verses. The thesis is anchored in the first verse. How you interpret the first vs is how you will filter the Gospel of John. If you conclude from the first vs that Jesus is godlike then that’s how you read the Gospel of John. And if you conclude that Jesus is God in the first verse then that is how you will filter the book.

Again what in the two premises brings you to the conclusion that Jesus is godlike in Jn 1:1c?
The wording in the LXX--The true God called Ho Theos,= God, the word called plain Theos=god--the same translating works at 2 Cor 4:4--The true God called Ho Theos=God, satan called plain Theos=god.
And Jesus is 100% clear at John 17:3 in the same book--The one who sent him=Father, is THE ONLY TRUE GOD.
 
The wording in the LXX--The true God called Ho Theos,= God, the word called plain Theos=god--the same translating works at 2 Cor 4:4--The true God called Ho Theos=God, satan called plain Theos=god.
And Jesus is 100% clear at John 17:3 in the same book--The one who sent him=Father, is THE ONLY TRUE GOD.
That is not how it works. In the Greek, when the noun carries the definite article the noun is definite. When the noun lacks the definite article it is either definite or indefinite depending on the context.
Note, the Gospel of John in the NWT published by the WTS God is translated capitalized , therefore God and not god, even though THEOS does not carry a definite article in 1:6,12,13,18, 3:2,21, 9:33. How did the WTS or any other translators come to these conclusions? Based on the text.
No one seems to argue these verses. Or better yet within the NT “God” appears 282 times lacking the definite article , of which it translates the indefinite as definite 266 times as "God" and the remaining 16 times as anarthrous translating theos as either god, a god, gods, and godly.

So again what in premise one or two brings you to the conclusion that Jesus is godlike in Jn 1:1c
 
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