I knew you would try to play the whole household angle. That's often the fall back for paedo baptizers.
That is not a substantive on topic reply.
Referencing Scripture according to the immediate context in which it was given is outrageous and a, "fall back," to the story tellers. Otherwise, the story teller could look at the same passage in it's God given perfect immediate context and be corrected. Or at least make a demonstrably false attempt to justify their story from the way they twist Scripture or in the way in which it was translated.
And of course you want to argue about grammar. Another fall back.
The story tellers ignore the marks on the page, what Scripture actually says in the context in which it was given, when they realize it interferes with the with their preaching of themselves rather than of Christ to and for all men.
In the end, there is not one command or example of someone being baptized before repentance and of course repentance requires faith.
Nonsense. You are mistaking good manners and what you read into Scripture and out of Scripture for what Scripture actually says.
Read Mark 16:15-16 again. Is it your claim that one or both instances of the English translation, "all," are incorrect translations, or that to you "all," doesn't mean, "all?"
Is it that you believe that Jesus was issuing an irrationally exuberant command? Where in the text of Mark 16:15-16 do you find the restrictive command to the baptized disciples of Christ, fallen men whose sin has been atoned for but not removed in this life, to baptize only those who they think have first repented? Its not there. You are just making it up.
It works out the same way, that there is nothing restricting the application of the command, when a person considers Jesus to be using a figure of speech. Right?
There are tons of Scriptures that tell us that we are saved by our faith and not a single verse in all of Scripture that says baptism apart from faith and repentance saves.
You're using right words but they are not being used in the right contexts or categories as found in Scripture.
For example, in Scripture the one being baptized into Christ is always passive. Therefore, baptism is the gift and work of God rather than a work of the one being baptized.
For example, in Scripture baptism is into Christ and saves through His resurrection rather than baptism into some generic undefined faith and repentance that is apart from Christ.
Even Matt 28:19-20 refutes your infant baptism because it says to teach and baptize. Let me know when you teach an infant before baptism, lol.
The answer you deny and laugh at is in the passage you referenced, Matthew 28:18-20.
A promise depends on the one who gives it, in this case it is God who gives the promise. You may not appreciate the grammar which God used in giving the Scriptures, or in how some people translate it into English, but the participles baptize and teach in Matthew 28:18-20 and in Mark 16:15-16 are not expressing a necessary order.
However, since they are informing the reader/listener of the verb translated as, "disciple," or, "teach" in Matthew 28:19 then baptism is a necessary part or component of what it means to disciple or teach in the context of Matthew 28:18-19.
“18. And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. 19. ¶Go ye therefore, and teach [verb] all nations, baptizing [oarticiple] them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: 20. Teaching [participle] them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.” (Matthew 28:18-20, KJV)
The Savior saves. Try reading the part in bold above as if what Jesus said in Luke 24:44ff were true. Focus on this verse,
“And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.” (Luke 24:44, KJV)
Jesus was referring what some call the Old Testament, but it isn't as if the purpose of His disciples were to write of something other than Christ. So the hermeneutical key to rightly understanding all of Scripture is it's testimony to the person and work of Jesus, the incarnate LORD God.
Looking at the bold above in Matthew 28, Jesus tells His baptized disciples that He will be with them unto the end of the world. According to His word this includes all others who baptize and teach according to His word.
How is He with them unto the end of the world? It is in the union with Christ which occurs in their baptism, see Romans 6. Or as Peter also wrote, "... baptism does now
save you through the resurrection of Christ." 1 Peter 3:21-22. The type of action indicated by the verb, "save," is continuous.
So when the Accuser comes rightfully accusing you of your sin and unworthiness the baptized can just tell him that they
are baptized.
It is Christ's righteousness that saves rather than our own
