Because that is exactly what you are, that is why.
What I believe and practice prior to a heavenly revelation is irrelevant. If that was common practice 2/3 of the NT would be missing. Paul was anti Jesus prior to meeting Him. If I told you that God revealed to me that Jesus is God why is that not good enough, and if not good enough what would be?
LOL and with that foolish carnal human reasoning on this, what would prohibit any one else who would claim to be God along with the Father from being God also and how would what Jesus said in John 17:3 make any sense or have any cogent meaning at all either?
Don't dance around it. You wrote
Your post. Oh and by the way, Jesus most definitely did say "Only You Father are the True God"
And 28 translations disagree with you.
Congratulations therefore, for you just opened the door for guys like David Koresh or Jim Jones to say that they are God along with the Father also, and that is what proves what you are saying as false and also shows just how ridiculous and worthless your carnal human reasoning on this text truly is.
In fact, they might have been taught this nonsense also like you were, for they both came out from trinity believing churches just like you also.
On the contrary, its you who opens the doors for this type, by claiming divine revelation, just as they did.
Sorry but none of those verses are actually revealing Jesus as God.
In 2 Peter 1:1 Paul isn't calling Jesus "Our God and Savior" but rather he is giving Jesus the title of "The righteousness of Our God and Savior"
Where? Read again.
2 Pe 1:1 Simon Peter, a bondservant and apostle of Jesus Christ,
To those who have [a
] precious faith with us by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ:
Reading 101, nothing in the text hints at your idea.
instead and by the way, the scriptures also says that we who have believed become "the righteousness of God through Jesus also" and that is found in 2 Corinthians 5:21 as seen below.
2 Corinthians 5:21 NIV: God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God
What Paul is saying here, is that Jesus became what we are before God in order that we might become what he is before God and that is "The Righteousness of Our God" and just like Paul says also.
The same thing is being done by Paul in Titus 2:13 except here Paul is giving Jesus the title of "The Glory of our Great God" and this shouldn't be that hard to accept because in Colossians 1:15 Paul also calls Jesus "the image of the invisible God" the glory of God is witness within and through Jesus Christ.
This is such a bad argument. Since Paul called Jesus A in Colossians its reasonable to conclude that Paul is calling Jesus B in Titus.
Titus 2:13 Looking for the blessed hope and appearing of "the glory of Our Great God and Savior" Jesus Christ.
It is a title to express the fact that God's glory is manifested through Jesus who will soon be appearing.
We are looking for the “glorious appearance” not the “appearance of glory” and the grammatical basis for this view is the widely acknowledged fact that a descriptive noun in the genitive [glory] following another noun[appearance] may exhibit an attributive use of the genitive, in which the noun functions as a description of the preceding(or “head”) noun. In this view, glory is what characterizes the appearance.
The only one that appears is Jesus never the Father; therefore 2:13 speaks only of Jesus.
Titus 1:4 To Titus, a true son in our common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Savior.
In Titus 1:4 the Father is identified as God, and Jesus is identified as Lord and Savior.
Tit 1:3 but has in due time manifested His word through preaching, which was committed to me according to the commandment of God our Savior;
Tit 2:10 not pilfering, but showing all good fidelity, that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Savior in all things.
In 1:3 and 2:10 the individual identified as God is also the Savior, or the individual identified as Savior is also God. Can the question be answered?
Tit 2:13 looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,
In 2:13 Jesus is identified as God and Savior.
Do we have contradictions here? Is Paul being polytheistic? Or could there be another answer?
1:4 Father is God and Jesus is Lord and Savior, 1:3 and 2:10 God is Savior, 2:13 Jesus is God and Savior. Reconcile.
"God was in Christ and not God was Christ or Christ was God but rather God was in Christ reconciling the world unto himself" See also John 14:10 and Acts 2:22.
grasping for straws.
Which by the way, brings us to John 20:28 (God was in Christ).
Now, pay close attention.
I'm on the edge of my chair.
While Jesus was alive on earth before he died and was resurrected, can you show any other place in the NT where any other of his disciples ever called him their Lord and God and if not, why not being you believe that Thomas was doing this in John 20:28?
It does not matter. John recorded what Thomas said. My God and my Lord. You cannot get around it. It only has to be said once.
Sorry but Thomas is not calling Jesus his God here either but instead he is addressing Yahweh God the Father what was and is within the Son.
Come on. Could you not come up with a better answer? Nothing in the text, or the entire Bible states this. Or lets follow your idea. Does there exist any verse in which anyone speaks to Jesus but rather is addressing YHWH who is within the Jesus.
For he was taught this in John 14:6-10 and now seeing Jesus alive from the dead, he knew for certain that Jesus was the Lord (kurios) and that God the Father had to be in Jesus in order for him to be alive from the dead and standing before him. See Romans 8:11 below.
Romans 8:11 And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you, he who raised Christ from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies because of his Spirit who lives in you.
In essence therefore, what Thomas is doing in John 20:28 is this, "for if you will confess with your mouth, the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised him from the dead, you will be saved"
Your wrong. But since you brought up that God raised Jesus from the dead, how do you reconcile the following which are explicit and literal.
According to the whole of Scripture who raised Jesus from the dead?
Romans 6:4 teaches that the Father raised Jesus from the dead.
John 2:19-21; 10:17,18 proclaims the Son raised Himself from the dead.
Romans 8:11 proclaims the Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead.
And Acts 3:26, 13:30, 17:30,31; 1 Thess. 1:9,10; Heb. 13:20 reveals that only God could raise Jesus from the dead.
Therefore the whole of Scripture reveals the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit in unity as God was responsible for raising Jesus from the dead.
It is the fact that God was in Jesus that was the reason why he was alive from the dead and just as Paul tells us also in Romans 8:11 above and therefore although Thomas was speaking to Jesus when he said it, he was making his confession of faith in both Jesus his Lord and also the Father God who was in Christ and through whom Jesus was raised from the dead.
Highly contrived nonsense.