OldShepherd
Well-known member
You are partly correct. Koine Greek does not have an indefinite article as we do in English. Everyone knows that the indefinite aticle in English is "a" or "an."Interpret John 1:1 by John 1:1.
The Greek language has the definite article which has approximately thirty variations, is translated into English as “the”, and points to an identifiable personality, someone we have prior knowledge of. But the Greek language has no indefinite article corresponding to the English “a”, or “an”. Often the Grammarians add the English indefinite articles “a” or “an” to give the proper sense of the passage, therefore pointing to an unidentifiable person, someone we do not have prior knowledge of. But this does not mean that every time a noun lacking the definite article occurs in the Greek text it should have an indefinite article in the translation. Depending on the context of the verse, chapter, book, and the main idea that the writer, translators render nouns lacking the definite article, either indefinite, definite, or none.
The gospel of John is intended to be read based on the thesis which is the first 18 verses, which is anchored on the first verse. If one believes that in the first verse, Jesus is God, then one reads the gospel from that point of view, but if one believes Jesus is a created being based on the first verse, then one will read the rest of the gospel based on that point of view. Therefore the deity of Jesus in John 1:1 should be determined by John 1:1
Dissect vs 1 into a logical argument
[premise 1] In the beginning was the Word,
[premise 2] and the Word was with God,
[conclusion] and the Word was God [or a god.]
Therefore premise 1and or 2 should support either “God” or “a god”.
In the beginning, was (ἐν ἀρχ͂ῃ ἦν)[en- ar•khay eimi].
If we are able to draw an imaginary line, on a razor's edge, where on one side there exists only God and the eternal, and the other exists the created and the temporal, this razor's edge is what John is opening to. John does not open referring to the beginning of Genesis but prior to it, in fact prior to time itself. Note this imaginary line relates to the eternal and the temporal, and not to the Genesis account of creation because creation is not mentioned until vs. 3. Notice where John places the Logos in reference to the beginning; if the Logos is a created being then the Logos would be included in the ‘beginning’ or after. Using [ἦν eimi] “was”, which denotes absolute existence instead of [ἐγένετο, egeneto] “came into being”, or “began to be”, which is used in vs. 3, John is placing the Logos prior to the beginning. John is saying that the Logos absolutely existed prior to the beginning, and the only One who existed prior to the beginning is God in the eternal. Therefore the only logical conclusion for John 1:1 is “the Word was God” not “was a god”.
Any rebuttal should be able to support its position by using John 1:1 only.
Greek does have two words which serve as an indefinite article. One is the the number one εἰς/eis. And also the word τις/tis which is usually translated as "A certain 'something.'"
JG, you dug your own grave........ don't worry I'm covering you up...... (smile).