Is Jesus the creator?

Josheb

Josheb

Well-known member
keiw said:
No John didnt. There is no capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1 in the Greek Lexicons= 100% proven fact.
As well at John 17:3--Jesus teaches--The Father is THE ONLY TRUE GOD--John would not contradict him. Translating error contradicted him. Why won't you believe Jesus over error?
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lol. All the letters are capitals! The uncial manuscripts are majuscule. In the context of Judaism, there is only one God. So when John, the same guy who claimed the logos made flesh was God later says there is only true God he is NOT contradicting himself. He is repudiating non-Trinitarian theologies.
 
Our Lord's God

Our Lord's God

Well-known member
Josheb said:
lol. All the letters are capitals! The uncial manuscripts are majuscule. In the context of Judaism, there is only one God.
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The God of the Israelite Jesus.

I wonder who that would be.

Yes, there is no difference, nor can there by any kind of difference, between the God of Israel and the God of Jesus.

The God of Jesus is equivalent the God of Israel and the God of Israel is equivalent to the God of Jesus.

There is just no escaping it. After all, there is only one true God to refer TO.

Josheb said:
So when John, the same guy who claimed the logos made flesh was God later says there is only true God he is NOT contradicting himself. He is repudiating non-Trinitarian theologies.
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K

keiw

Well-known member
Josheb said:
lol. All the letters are capitals! The uncial manuscripts are majuscule. In the context of Judaism, there is only one God. So when John, the same guy who claimed the logos made flesh was God later says there is only true God he is NOT contradicting himself. He is repudiating non-Trinitarian theologies.
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There is no capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1 in the Greek lexicons= proven fact.
 
F

Fred

Well-known member
keiw said:
There is no capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1 in the Greek lexicons= proven fact.
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You better do a serious check on your so-called proven facts.

Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains: it is legitimate to interpret Jn. 1:1 as 'the Word was God' (12.1, theos, page 137, J. P. Louw and Eugene Nida).
 
F

Fred

Well-known member
keiw said:
As well at John 17:3--Jesus teaches--The Father is THE ONLY TRUE GOD
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The same Greek word for "only" used in John 17:3 is applied in reference to Jesus being the only Master (despotēs) of every Christian in Jude 4 - and yet the Father is also the despotēs of every Christian (Acts 4:24).

Who is the only Master (despotēs) of every Christian?
 
Our Lord's God

Our Lord's God

Well-known member
Fred said:
The same Greek word for "only" used in John 17:3 is applied in reference to Jesus being the only Master (despotēs) of every Christian in Jude 4 - and yet the Father is also the despotēs of every Christian (Acts 4:24).

Who is the only Master (despotēs) of every Christian?
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Using corrupted texts is of no use to anyone.

I know. You don't care whether you are using a verse which has manuscripts variants showing this verse was corrupted. You don't need to show us once again that you don't care.
 
Josheb

Josheb

Well-known member
Our Lord's God said:
The God of the Israelite Jesus.

I wonder who that would be.

Yes, there is no difference, nor can there by any kind of difference, between the God of Israel and the God of Jesus.

The God of Jesus is equivalent the God of Israel and the God of Israel is equivalent to the God of Jesus.

There is just no escaping it. After all, there is only one true God to refer TO.
Click to expand...
Proverbs 26:17
 
Josheb

Josheb

Well-known member
Our Lord's God said:
They aren't "capitals." They are where we got the idea for "capitals." A capital is an uppercase followed by lowercase.
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The point is the claim the "g" in "GOD" is not capitalized is unfounded. There are no lower-case letters in the manuscripts. In the monotheistic Jewish paradigm, there is only one God, not many gods. That's what make Judaism monotheistic. It is wholly inconsistent to say the monotheistic Jewish John was claiming Jesus is a lesser god, especially under the auspices of the "g" being lower case. It was a lame argument from its inception.
 
K

keiw

Well-known member
Fred said:
You better do a serious check on your so-called proven facts.

Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains: it is legitimate to interpret Jn. 1:1 as 'the Word was God' (12.1, theos, page 137, J. P. Louw and Eugene Nida).
Click to expand...

It doesn't matter what he says--The true God is called Ho Theos= God--the word was called plain Theos=god--the same occurs at 2 Cor 4:4--100% fact translating works the same at both spots.
 
K

keiw

Well-known member
Fred said:
The same Greek word for "only" used in John 17:3 is applied in reference to Jesus being the only Master (despotēs) of every Christian in Jude 4 - and yet the Father is also the despotēs of every Christian (Acts 4:24).

Who is the only Master (despotēs) of every Christian?
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Keep twisting things, you will never have truth, thus can never accomplish this-John 4:22-24
 
K

keiw

Well-known member
Josheb said:
I repeat: all the letter are capital in uncial manuscripts.
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Then in the only other spot in the NT where God is called HoTheos and another plain Theos in the same paragraph, a small g god is given at 2 Cor 4:4, but not at John 1:1 when the same occurs? Translating works the same at both spots-0 doubt.
 
Josheb

Josheb

Well-known member
keiw said:
Then in the only other spot in the NT where God is called HoTheos and another plain Theos in the same paragraph, a small g god is given at 2 Cor 4:4, but not at John 1:1 when the same occurs? Translating works the same at both spots-0 doubt.
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There are no small g's.
 
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