Jesus is God - 3 points

Greek word kyrios (= Lord) was used to refer to God in both the Greek Old Testament and the New Testament. Here is an example from the Gospel of Mark:

Everyone knows this.

What people ignore is that many others are called "Lord."

David was the Lord of Israel. Nobody thought he was God.
 
Everyone knows this.

What people ignore is that many others are called "Lord."

David was the Lord of Israel. Nobody thought he was God.

The difference is, Jesus is 'Lord' in that He is YHWH.

 
Yes, but in Hellenism logos was not God.
You're moving the goalposts. Earlier you said: "...the gospel of John is a repudiation of Hellenism's influence on Judaism." You should concede that that statement is wrong as I just demonstrated.
John said the logos was God. He was referencing Philo and changed what Philo said about Alexander, applying the logos to Jesus as God, not just a man with God-given reason (logos). Look it up.
Great. You concede that John was inspired by pagan thought when he wrote his gospel.
 
You concede that John was inspired by pagan thought when he wrote his gospel.

Absurd.
Even Paul used what others believed concerning their worship and used it as a vehicle to preach about the 1 true God in Acts 17.

Paul (and John) were not "inspired by pagan thought", but they were inspired by God.
 
The difference is, Jesus is 'Lord' in that He is YHWH.

YHWH is this Lord's God.

An honest rational mind knows and accepts the implications of that fact.

 
You are the one who is dodging the use of 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 10:21-22, 26.

Yes I do understand that in your feeble mind you think that you have something special here.

Greek speaking Jews and Christians referred to Jesus as Kyrios. They also referred to the Lord's God as Kyrios.

They also knew their Lord God was the God of the Lord Jesus.

You don't seem to know.

They also knew this man Jesus was given the right to execute his Lord God's authority.

You don't seem to know this either.

This is because they refute your heresy.

In your fantasy world anything is possible.
 
To whom does the 'Lord' refer to in 1 Corinthians 10:21-22, 26?

For us there is one God out of whom are all things... and one Lord through whom are all things.

It refers to the God of the Lord Jesus through whom are all things which are out of his God. The earth belongs to the God of Jesus.

Or would you rather we appeal to your personal desires instead?

Does Psalm 24:1 refer to the God of Jesus?
 


A you say so assertion without evidence works well with the other heretics you surround yourself with, but the serious Christian would avoid such a ridiculous approach to Scripture.

As with the 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6, the 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 10:21-22, 26 all refer to the Lord Jesus.
You have not, because you cannot, refute the evidence that teaches the above truth:
 
A you say so assertion without evidence works well with the other heretics you surround yourself with, but the serious Christian would avoid such a ridiculous approach to Scripture.

As with the 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6, the 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 10:21-22, 26 all refer to the Lord Jesus.
You have not, because you cannot, refute the evidence that teaches the above truth:

Back to foot stomping eh?

Is Psalm 24:1 referring to the God of Jesus?
 
I really would like to know why you think this self fantasizing of yours does you any good. Care to share?

Because you keep dodging the evidence that 1 Corinthians 8:6 and 1 Corinthians 10:21-22, 26 ALL refer to the Lord Jesus, I am to reject you as a heretic (Titus 3:10).

Say 'hello' to being on my Ignore List.

- bye-
 
You concede that John was inspired by pagan thought when he wrote his gospel.
Absurd.
Even Paul used what others believed concerning their worship and used it as a vehicle to preach about the 1 true God in Acts 17.
I mentioned John's influences, so Paul is not very relevant.
Paul (and John) were not "inspired by pagan thought"...
You're completely disregarding the evidence that John (I didn't say anything about Paul) was obviously inspired by pagan religious beliefs and, you are just denying it.
...but they were inspired by God.
That's a false dichotomy because being inspired by by God and by pagan thought is possible if God inspired pagan thought.
 
You're moving the goalposts. Earlier you said: "...the gospel of John is a repudiation of Hellenism's influence on Judaism." You should concede that that statement is wrong as I just demonstrated.
I just showed John did exactly that! No moving of any goalposts.
Great. You concede that John was inspired by pagan thought when he wrote his gospel.
No, he was inspired by God to attest to the divinity of God's Son, and he did so in many ways in his gospels and epistles, two of which were the repudiation of Hellenism and the Sadducean theology. A person is not "inspired" by what they repudiate.


More importantly I just did what you've been asked to do in the last two exchanges we've had: Cite specific sources and provide specific evidence. I'm still waiting for those from you.
 
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