No I didn't. The word begotten refers to offspring because that's what it means. Don't fiddle with definitions.
That's great, thank you. Each time the word begotten refers to offspring, that is being born. It's a specific day someone was born, in accordance with being created, whether spiritually or physically. The point was someone was born and that's a starting point
The confusion lies in the translation, not in the original language.
Only begotten translates from
μονογενής (monogenēs), ές (es): adj.; unique, only, one and only, i.e., one of a kind: (many versions) only begotten {Swanson, James: Dictionary of Biblical Languages With Semantic Domains}
Begot translates from.
γεννάω [gennao] translates as “begat” 49 times, “be born” 39 times, “bear” twice, “gender” twice, “bring forth” once, “be delivered” once, and translated miscellaneously three times. 1 of men who fathered children. 1a to be born. 1b to be begotten. 1b1 of women giving birth to children. {Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible}
Yes, Abraham begot sons literally. The way it is used in the Bible and real life refers to offspring. The concept doesn't suddenly change when applied to Jesus. This isn't supposed to be complicated as the Bible quite clearly refers to Jesus as having a beginning point.
Abraham gennao eight sons. Issac was his monogenes.
Rather than produce a big list, let's just look at one. The word son itself refers to being a descendent.
John 3
18Whoever believes in Him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe has already been condemned, because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.
Now you want to change the subject.
But I will entertain you.
Mt 26:63 But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest answered and said to Him, “I put You under oath by the living God:
Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God!”64 Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.” 65 Then the high priest tore his clothes, saying, “He has spoken blasphemy! What further need do we have of witnesses? Look, now you have heard His blasphemy! 66 What do you think?” They answered and said, “He is deserving of death.”
What is so blasphemous in Mt 26:64 that the Sanhedrin wanted to kill Jesus, could it be “Son of Man” = at most it a messianic term, “coming on the clouds” = God only appears in the cloud, “sitting at right hand of power” = no claim to deity there, or “Son of God”, = Jesus said “It is as you said”.
What constitutes blasphemy is it claiming to exist before Abraham, being a created angel, or a created being? No it is claiming to be God.
Le 24:16 And whoever blasphemes the name of the Lord shall surely be put to death. All the congregation shall certainly stone him, the stranger as well as him who is born in the land. When he blasphemes the name of the Lord, he shall be put to death.
Jn 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought all the more to kill Him, because He not only broke the Sabbath,
but also said that God was His Father, making Himself equal with God.
Jn 19:7 The Jews answered him, “We have a law, and according to [
a]our law He ought to die, because
He made Himself the Son of God.”
Jn 10:31-36 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?” The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because
You, being a Man, make Yourself God.” Jesus answered them… do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’
because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?
. From John 8:58 to John 10 30-33 there is no mention of stoning Jesus for anything he said. It is in John 10:30 where Jesus states that He and The Father are One. Note that this time the Jews give the reason why they wanted to stone Jesus. They state that Jesus was claiming to be God. For this reason they were going to stone Jesus. Now what could have given the Jews the idea that Jesus was claiming to be God in John 8:58 or 10:30? Could it be that he said “Before Abraham was, I am?” Or “I and the Father are One.” Since Jesus was being accused both times of blasphemy, it would be logical to conclude that Jesus was making a very serious claim. Jesus is the Way, the Truth and the Life. Jesus would not agree with any lie. Please note that if Jesus was not claiming to be God, then in John 10:30 or 8:58 Jesus would of logically have corrected the Jews and told them that He was not claiming the Name of God as His own. . Note that in John 10:30 he does not refute the Jews for accusing Him of blasphemy by His claim to be God. If he did not answer to the Jewish accusation of blasphemy by stating that he was not God then Jesus was in agreement with them when they stated, “For good works we stone thee not but for blasphemy; and because thou, being a man, makest thyself God.”
How?
Mt 26:63
Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God!
Jn 19:7
He made Himself the Son of God.”
Jn 5:18,
but also said that God was His Father, making Himself equal with God.
Jn 10:36
because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?
Why is that?
Son of” used by ancient Semitics and Orientals to indicate “likeness or sameness of nature and equality of being.” This was used by Jesus to claim that He was God.