Jesus returns twice.

[CrowCross]

It took a while but I finally found a document by a Dispensationalist that sought to explain how to interpret prophecy. I found it in Scofield's Bible Correspondence School, Volume I, p. 46. It says in part, "Here we reach the ground of absolute literalness*. Figures are often found in the prophecies, but the figure invariably has a literal fulfillment."
* emphasis original

If you don't accept his method of interpretation that's fine, but using his words the Dispensational doctrine of Israel and the church is false (This isn't to say that what Darby and followers say they reject in this regard is true.), as are some other doctrines unique to Dispensationalism.

For example, Scofield wrote that Israel is always Israel. Ok, Israel is always Israel and our infallible interpreter in Galatians 6 says the Israel of God are those of the household of faith. Since that is the case their distinction between Israel and the church and their "great parenthesis" can only stand if they read a particular meaning of Israel into the text. That can only be done on the basis of their speculation.

Looking at the passages you cited above, "from His mouth proceeds a sharp sword," is a figure of speech. It's literal fulfillment is not Jesus with a metal sword in His mouth. He isn't going to go around wagging his head side to side to strike down the nation's one at a time. It is consistent to understand that figure and the "breath of His mouth" (Isaiah 11:4, 2Th 2:8) with the word of God. Fwiw, the figure of the white horse also doesn't find it's literal fulfillment in a white horse.

The figures of speech in the beginning of Zechariah 14 don't indicate a second coming because they echo the exodus and it refers to the Lord coming with the saints.

The key to understanding the Tanakh or OT is Jesus. Jesus told the unbelievers, “You search the Scriptures, for you think in them you have everlasting life. And they are the ones witnessing concerning Me.” (Joh 5:39, LITV)

Jesus told the disciples, “26. Was it not necessary for the Christ to suffer these things, and to enter into His glory? 27. And beginning from Moses, and from all the prophets, He explained to them the things about Himself in all the Scriptures...
must be fulfilled all the things having been written in the Law of Moses, and the Prophets, and the Psalms, concerning Me. 45Then He opened up their mind to understand the Scriptures, 46and said to them, So it is written, and so the Christ must suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day. 47And repentance and remission of sins must be preached on His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem. 48And you are witnesses of these things."
(Luk 24:26-27...44-48, LITV)

And Paul wrote, “For as many promises as are of God, in Him they are yes, and in Him are Amen, for glory to God through us.” (2Cor 1:20, LITV)

Praise the Lord!

For the record, I'm not into replacement theology.
Dispensations have several meanings.
I recognize that the bible should be translated as literal except for when it obviously isn't.

 

[dberrie2020]

But we who are in Christ Jesus our Lord will not be judged, .......

That may be Lutheran theology--but it isn't Biblical.

True---Christians won't be judged unto condemnation--but one cannot collate the statement Christians won't be judged--as an encompassing statement--and align it with the Biblical testimony:

John 5:28-29----King James Version (KJV)
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

That testifies all will be judged according to works--after death--and that for life or damnation.

How does that differ from other testimonies?

2 Corinthians 5:10---King James Version (KJV)
10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad.

Isn't the "we" there--a reference to Christians?

1 Peter 1:16-17---King James Version (KJV)
16 Because it is written, Be ye holy; for I am holy.
17 And if ye call on the Father, who without respect of persons judgeth according to every man's work, pass the time of your sojourning here in fear:

Romans 2:5-11----King James Version (KJV)
5 But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.

Matthew 16:27---King James Version
27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.

 

[Bonnie]

For the record, I'm not into replacement theology.
Dispensations have several meanings.
I recognize that the bible should be translated as literal except for when it obviously isn't.

So do we.

 

[CrowCross]

So do we.

What does this verse mean?

Rev 5: 13 And I heard every creature in heaven and on earth and under the earth and in the sea, and all that is in them, saying:

“To Him who sits on the throne

and to the Lamb

be praise and honor and glory and power

forever and ever!”

 

[BJ Bear]

For the record, I'm not into replacement theology.
Dispensations have several meanings.
I recognize that the bible should be translated as literal except for when it obviously isn't.

I've been puzzling over what you mean by replacement theology since no one is or was replaced. As Peter, an Israelite, put it about the Israelites, “But through the grace of the Lord Jesus, we believe that we will be saved in the same manner as they."” (Act 15:11, EMTV)

Since all the people of God are saved in the same way it is apparent that a true literal interpretation is literal, that is, it accounts for the immediate context rather than imposing an out of context literalistic interpretation.

The Apostles, those whose minds the Lord opened to understand the Scriptures, what is now commonly called the OT, had and presented in the NT Scriptures the right interpretation of those OT Scriptures.

 

[CrowCross]

I've been puzzling over what you mean by replacement theology

That's the belief that Christians replaced the Jews.