Jesus was "made Lord" (Acts 2:36)

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Fred

Well-known member
Acts 2:36
Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ—this Jesus whom you crucified. (NASB)

The first thing to notice is that moments earlier Peter (recorded by Luke) applied YHWH from Joel 3:5 (Septuagint) in reference to praying to the Lord Jesus in Acts 2:21. This demonstrates the Lord Jesus is God.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/pau...lxx-unto-the-lord-jesus-in-romans-10-13.7415/

Therefore, Jesus was not made Lord in that He was created for He has always been the Lord. Jesus was made Lord in that His resurrection validated His Lordship.
Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: The title 'Lord', as given to the Saviour, in its full significance rests upon the resurrection, Acts 2:36; Rom. 10:9; 14:9 (Lord, page 690).

Romans 1:4 also links Jesus being declared the Son of God with His resurrection, even though the Bible already taught that He is the Son of God before this writing (cf. John 11:27). Once again, His resurrection validated that He is the Son of God.

It is worth noting that the expression, "the Lord Jesus" was first used after His resurrection (Luke 24:3).

Those who believe Acts 2:36 teaches the Lord Jesus is not God are very confused.
 
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Yahchristian

Well-known member
Fred said:
Acts 2:36
The first thing to notice is that moments earlier Peter (recorded by Luke) applied YHWH from Joel 3:5 (Septuagint) in reference to praying to the Lord Jesus in Acts 2:21. This demonstrates the Lord Jesus is God.
Click to expand...

Specifically, it demonstrates Jesus is YHWH.

Acts 2:21... And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

There are three basic views promoted on this forum...

A) Jesus is not the incarnation of YHWH
B) Jesus is the incarnation of one of three called YHWH
C) Jesus is the incarnation of YHWH

I believe that verse proves C since there is only one YHWH.

But in your view...

What in that verse proves B rather than C?
 
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Y

Yahchristian

Well-known member
Fred said:
I will not answer any of your ridiculous questions since you won't answer mine.

See post 132
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These were your questions...

Fred said:
1. Is Jesus the Only Master (despotēs) of every Christian (Jude 4)?
2. Why does the same Greek word for "only" appear in Revelation 15:4 in that God alone is holy but the same Greek word for "holy" is applied unto people (Titus 1:8)?
3. Why is it that whenever the "true God" is used in the Bible it is always used in contradistinction with idols (2 Chronicles 15:3; Jeremiah 10:10, 11; John 17:3; Thessalonians 1:9 and 1 John 5:20, 21)?
Click to expand...

My answers are...
1. Yes.
2. “hosios” in Revelation 15:4 refers to God as “holy” whereas “hosios” in Titus 1:8 refers to people as “devout / pious toward God”.
3. There is only one true God and it is not any of the idols people thought were gods.

Now are you able to answer my question...

What in Acts 2:21 proves Jesus is the incarnation of one of three called YHWH
rather than Jesus is the incarnation of YHWH?
 
F

Fred

Well-known member
1. They referred to the Father as despotēs in Acts 4:24 so your answer doesn't make sense.
2. Something I already affirmed.

Answer: It proves Jesus is YHWH.
 
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Yahchristian

Well-known member
Fred said:
1. They referred to the Father as despotēs in Acts 4:24 so your answer doesn't make sense.
2. Something I already affirmed.

Answer: It proves Jesus is YHWH.
Click to expand...

I agree !!!

But just to clarify how you connect Jesus and YHWH via incarnation...

You would leave the blank empty. Correct?

Jesus is the incarnation of _______________ YHWH.

I would leave the blank empty.
 
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Yahchristian

Well-known member
Fred said:
1. They referred to the Father as despotēs in Acts 4:24 so your answer doesn't make sense.
Click to expand...

Since there is only one Almighty (capital A), if two are called the Almighty that means they are the selfsame Almighty.

Likewise...

Since there is only one Master (capital M), if two are called the Master that means they are the selfsame Master.
 
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Yahchristian

Well-known member
Fred said:
No, because other passages show they are not the same Person.
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Just to clarify your Trinitarian view...

1) How many Masters (capital M) are there?

2) How many Almighty’s (capital A) are there?

3) How many Lords (capital L) are there?

I say one, one, one.
 
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Yahchristian

Well-known member
Fred said:
You agreed that your answer didn't make sense concerning this in post 6.
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I was not clear. I was agreeing to your answer in post 6, not the other part.

Fred said:
Answer: It proves Jesus is YHWH.
Click to expand...


So just to clarify how you connect Jesus and YHWH via incarnation...

Would you leave the blank empty, or do you need to put something in the blank?

Jesus is the incarnation of _______________ YHWH.

I would leave the blank empty.
 
C

cjab

Well-known member
Fred said:
Acts 2:36
Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ—this Jesus whom you crucified. (NASB)

The first thing to notice is that moments earlier Peter (recorded by Luke) applied YHWH from Joel 3:5 (Septuagint) in reference to praying to the Lord Jesus in Acts 2:21. This demonstrates the Lord Jesus is God.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/pau...lxx-unto-the-lord-jesus-in-romans-10-13.7415/
Click to expand...
No, it demonstrates that Jesus is Lord.

Fred said:
Therefore, Jesus was not made Lord in that He was created for He has always been the Lord. Jesus was made Lord in that His resurrection validated His Lordship
Click to expand...

Fred said:
Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: The title 'Lord', as given to the Saviour, in its full significance rests upon the resurrection, Acts 2:36; Rom. 10:9; 14:9 (Lord, page 690).

Romans 1:4 also links Jesus being declared the Son of God with His resurrection, even though the Bible already taught that He is the Son of God before this writing (cf. John 11:27). Once again, His resurrection validated that He is the Son of God.

It is worth noting that the expression, "the Lord Jesus" was first used after His resurrection (Luke 24:3).

Those who believe Acts 2:36 teaches the Lord Jesus is not God are very confused.
Click to expand...
Those who teach that God is his own Son are even more confused. Such gnostic nonsense is nowhere taught in the bible.
 
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C

cjab

Well-known member
Fred said:
Which proves He is God in that (1) YHWH from an OT text is applied unto Him, and (2) He is the proper recipient of prayer.
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Rubbish. It doesn't "prove" anything other than that Jesus is savior where Jesus means "YHWH saves." Jesus is the YHWH's means of salvation.
 
C

cjab

Well-known member
Fred said:
a. Only God is the proper recipient of prayer (see below).
b. The Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer (Acts 2:21).
c. Therefore, the Lord Jesus is God.

https://forums.carm.org/threads/only-pray-to-god.7370/
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The Lord Jesus is NOT the proper recipient of prayer by Acts 2:21, for many times Jesus instructed his disciples how to pray and he never said "pray to me."

It shows you don't take instruction, you don't listen to a single word anyone says (including Jesus himself), you're incapable of engaging with any issue except you're own narrow bigotted propaganda.
 
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