squirrelyguy
Well-known member
John 14:6 gets quoted a lot in regards to the exclusivity of Christ. Specifically, we Christians use this verse to dispel the notion that a person can go to heaven if they never express a deliberate belief in Christ during this lifetime. Thus, we rule out any hope of salvation for people who die without having heard the gospel.
But my question for CARM is this: is there a principled way to use John 14:6 in this manner, and yet believe that children who die in infancy can go to heaven? If so, I would be eager to hear it.
And if children who die in infancy can go to heaven despite John 14:6, then on what principled basis can we say that John 14:6 rules out any hope of salvation for those who die without having heard the gospel?
But my question for CARM is this: is there a principled way to use John 14:6 in this manner, and yet believe that children who die in infancy can go to heaven? If so, I would be eager to hear it.
And if children who die in infancy can go to heaven despite John 14:6, then on what principled basis can we say that John 14:6 rules out any hope of salvation for those who die without having heard the gospel?