John 2:19-22, Did Jesus really restore his life back from the dead?

Did either John or Jesus' other disciples truly understand Jesus to be saying that he would restore his own life back from the dead? If so, then how do you explain verse 22 below where John uses the passive voice verb "raised" to explain what he heard Jesus to be saying?​

John 2:19-22​

New International Version​

19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”
20 They replied, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body. 22 After he was raised (passive voice) from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken.
 
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Probably not at the time He said this, but surely after.

John 10:17-18

17 For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life that I may take it up again. 18 No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This charge I have received from my Father.”
 
Probably not at the time He said this, but surely after.

John 10:17-18

17 For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life that I may take it up again. 18 No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This charge I have received from my Father.”
Let's look at that again then.

Notice in verse 17 the words "I lay it down "hina" in order that I might receive it again", for what Jesus is saying by this, is that he was given a commandment to keep and with authority from the words of God unto him, that if he laid his life down in death, he would in turn receive it back again from the dead because of this.

This is what he meant, for God gave him a commandment with a promise, that if he would lay down his life in death, he would receive it back again from the dead.


Now notice also the words "I have authority (power) to lay it down and to received it back again", for the authority he is speaking of here is God's word on it, for God cannot lie.

Therefore what Jesus was saying here, is that he indeed had a part in receiving his life back from the dead and his part in it was his obedience to the commandment of God to lay it down first in death and his authority that he stood on for this, was God's word on it because God cannot lie.


Now think about this, for don't we also have a part in our being raised from the dead to eternal life also?

For isn't it true that we are commanded to repent and believe the gospel and it is through our repentance and faith in God through Christ that we have the authority from God's word that we also will be raised from the dead to eternal life because we obeyed the commandment given us?

This is no different than what Jesus was saying in John 10:17-18.

For he was not saying that he would raise himself from the dead and the proof of that also is seen in that none of the narratives of the writers of scripture who heart him say this, ever said in their narratives that he raised himself from the dead but rather that only God did by his Holy Spirit.
 
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civic

Active member
Before His Resurrection

Jesus replied, “You do not realize now what I am doing, but later you will understand…. I am telling you now before it happens, so that when it does happen you will believe that I am who I am.” — John 13:7,19

After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken. John 2:22

From that time on Jesus began to explain to his disciples that he must go to Jerusalem and suffer many things at the hands of the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and on the third day be raised to life. — Matthew 16:21

Now Jesus was going up to Jerusalem. On the way, he took the Twelve aside and said to them, “We are going up to Jerusalem, and the Son of Man will be delivered over to the chief priests and the teachers of the law. They will condemn him to death and will hand him over to the Gentiles to be mocked and flogged and crucified. On the third day he will be raised to life!” — Matthew 20:17-19

After His Resurrection

He said to them, “How foolish you are, and how slow to believe all that the prophets have spoken! Did not the Messiah have to suffer these things and then enter his glory?” And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself. — Luke 24:25-27

He said to them, “This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms.” Then he opened their minds so they could understand the Scriptures.Luke 24:44-45
 
Before His Resurrection

Jesus replied, “You do not realize now what I am doing, but later you will understand…. I am telling you now before it happens, so that when it does happen you will believe that I am who I am.” — John 13:7,19

After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken. John 2:22

From that time on Jesus began to explain to his disciples that he must go to Jerusalem and suffer many things at the hands of the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and on the third day be raised to life. — Matthew 16:21

Now Jesus was going up to Jerusalem. On the way, he took the Twelve aside and said to them, “We are going up to Jerusalem, and the Son of Man will be delivered over to the chief priests and the teachers of the law. They will condemn him to death and will hand him over to the Gentiles to be mocked and flogged and crucified. On the third day he will be raised to life!” — Matthew 20:17-19

After His Resurrection

He said to them, “How foolish you are, and how slow to believe all that the prophets have spoken! Did not the Messiah have to suffer these things and then enter his glory?” And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself. — Luke 24:25-27

He said to them, “This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms.” Then he opened their minds so they could understand the Scriptures.Luke 24:44-45
And just how do you suppose that this refutes the clear evidence in John 2:19-22 and especially verse 22 with the passive voice verb translated "raised" that neither John nor the other disciples understood him to be saying that he raised himself from the dead?


For all of those scriptures you gave only support the fact that God raised him from the dead and not that he raised himself from the dead. Furthermore, neither the words "Christ" or "the Son of the living God" mean that Jesus was also God himself, for David was declared to be the Son of God first in Psalm 2:7 and then after him Solomon also in 2 Samuel 7:14.

Therefore when you trins tell people that the Jews were correct in their understanding that Jesus was making himself equal unto God by calling himself what God first called David and Solomon "the Son of God" you are actually telling a lie and whether you want to admit to it or not.

It is therefore the same exact lie that the rebellious Jewish leaders received from their Father the Devil in order to falsely accuse Jesus unto his death and not what they could have ever received by the word of God in their own OT Scriptures, for they never revealed any such thing at all.

John 8:44-45​

New International Version​

44 You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father’s desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies. 45 Yet because I tell the truth, you do not believe me!

The fact is therefore, that they didn't want to believe that Jesus was that anointed (Christ) human heir (human Son) from David's line of descendants to rule over them because Jesus exposed them as the true hypocrites that they were in front of all the people of Israel.

That is why they were wide open to the lies and murderous plot of their true Father the Devil.

For what the OT does reveal about the words "Son of God" and what they would have known also, is that it referred to the human heir of God that would fulfill the complete promise of God to David, that out of his descendants would come the Greatest Anointed Human Son of God of all and who would be directly sent from God to fulfill the complete promise given to David and Israel from God.
 
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civic

Active member
And just how do you suppose that this refutes the clear evidence in John 2:19-22 and especially verse 22 with the passive voice verb translated "raised" that neither John nor the other disciples understood him to be saying that he raised himself from the dead?


For all of those scriptures you gave only support the fact that God raised him from the dead and not that he raised himself from the dead. Furthermore, neither the words "Christ" or "the Son of the living God" mean that Jesus was also God himself, for David was declared to be the Son of God first in Psalm 2:7 and then after him Solomon also in 2 Samuel 7:14.

Therefore when you trins tell people that the Jews were correct in their understanding that Jesus was making himself equal unto God by calling himself what God first called David and Solomon "the Son of God" you are actually telling a lie and whether you want to admit to it or not.

It is therefore the same exact lie that the rebellious Jewish leaders received from their Father the Devil in order to falsely accuse Jesus unto his death and not what they could have ever received by the word of God in their own OT Scriptures, for they never revealed any such thing at all.

John 8:44-45​

New International Version​

44 You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father’s desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies. 45 Yet because I tell the truth, you do not believe me!

The fact is therefore, that they didn't want to believe that Jesus was that anointed (Christ) human heir (human Son) from David's line of descendants to rule over them because Jesus exposed them as the true hypocrites that they were in front of all the people of Israel.

That is why they were wide open to the lies and murderous plot of their true Father the Devil.

For what the OT does reveal about the words "Son of God" and what they would have known also, is that it referred to the human heir of God that would fulfill the complete promise of God to David, that out of his descendants would come the Greatest Anointed Human Son of God of all and who would be directly sent from God to fulfill the complete promise given to David and Israel from God.
I will believe Jesus words below. Since Jesus is God ( John 1:1, John 20:28) He raised Himself from the dead.

John 2
The Jews then responded to him, “What sign can you show us to prove your authority to do all this?”

19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”

20 They replied, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body. 22 After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken.
 
I will believe Jesus words below. Since Jesus is God ( John 1:1, John 20:28) He raised Himself from the dead.

John 2
The Jews then responded to him, “What sign can you show us to prove your authority to do all this?”

19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”

20 They replied, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body. 22 After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken.
Sorry but you are not agreeing with what John and the other disciples heard Jesus to be saying then, for as I have shown, that word "raised" that John wrote in his explanation of what he truly heard Jesus to be saying in verse 19, is in the passive voice and there is no way therefore that Jesus restored his own life back into his own body after dying.

Instead, what he was saying is that after they killed him and after God restored his life back to his body, he would arise from where he was laid in the tomb and walk out of it alive from the dead and that Sir is what they understood him to be be saying and it is proven in their narratives also, for none of them ever wrote that Jesus raised himself from the dead.


So what do their narratives reveal that they believed then civic?

For none of them ever wrote that Jesus actually raised himself from the dead but rather that only the Father did by his Spirit.

So no, you aren't believing what Jesus actually said or meant but rather only what you want to believe instead, for the disciples didn't contradict Jesus in what they understood him to be saying.
 

civic

Active member
Sorry but you are not agreeing with what John and the other disciples heard Jesus to be saying then, for as I have shown, that word "raised" that John wrote in his explanation of what he truly heard Jesus to be saying in verse 19, is in the passive voice and there is no way therefore that Jesus restored his own life back into his own body after dying.

Instead, what he was saying is that after they killed him and after God restored his life back to his body, he would arise from where he was laid in the tomb and walk out of it alive from the dead and that Sir is what they understood him to be be saying and it is proven in their narratives also, for none of them ever wrote that Jesus raised himself from the dead.


So what do their narratives reveal that they believed then civic?

For none of them ever wrote that Jesus actually raised himself from the dead but rather that only the Father did by his Spirit.

So no, you aren't believing what Jesus actually said or meant but rather only what you want to believe so you can stay in your comfort zone of your preconceived ideas from your false doctrines instead.
you are using the fallacy known as an argument from silence. I believe Jesus words not your opinion.
 
Nonsense, for the fact that John explained what he and the other disciples heard and understood Jesus to be saying in verse 19 from John's words in verse 22 right after it and by his using the passive voice verb translated as "raised", can hardly be called an argument from silence.

However, what you are using is your usual arguments from your carnal wisdom, mind and thinking and which is why the truth will continue to be hidden from you also and just like it was for the rebellious Jews of Jesus' day.

Matthew 11:25-26

New International Version

The Father Revealed in the Son​

25 At that time Jesus said, “I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. 26 Yes, Father, for this is what you were pleased to do.

1 Corinthians 2:13-16

New King James Version

13 These things we also speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teaches but which the Holy Spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things (from the written scriptures) with spiritual (words from the Holy Spirit). 14 But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. 15 But he who is spiritual judges all things, yet he himself is rightly judged by no one. 16 For “who has known the mind of the Lord that he may instruct Him?” But we (who are led of the Spirit) have the mind of Christ.

1 Corinthians 3

New King James Version

3 And I, brethren, could not speak to you as to spiritual people but as to carnal, as to babes in Christ. 2 I fed you with milk and not with solid food; for until now you were not able to receive it, and even now you are still not able; 3 for you are still carnal.
 
you are using the fallacy known as an argument from silence. I believe Jesus words not your opinion.
Also, I have proven from the Jewish OT that they could never have gotten the idea that one being called by God his Son or one having God call himself ones Father ever meant that the one being called this was a literal Son of God's own substance or ontology but that it only refers to a human who is anointed to be God's heir and therefore called his Son.

For David was declared by God his Son first in Psalm 2:7 and then after this Solomon also in 2 Samuel 7:14 and then after this and because Jesus was from David's line of descendants according to the promise, Jesus was also in Hebrews 1:5.

Matthew 16:15-17
He[Jesus]said to them, “But who do you say that I am?” 16 Simon Peter answered, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” 17 And Jesus said to him, “Blessed are you, Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven.

Therefore, Peter was hardly calling Jesus God because God revealed to him that Jesus was that human final and greatest human heir and Son of God according to the promise made to David and Israel.
 
you are using the fallacy known as an argument from silence. I believe Jesus words not your opinion.
Nonsense, for the fact that John explained what he and the other disciples heard and understood Jesus to be saying in verse 19 from John's words in verse 22 right after it and by his using the passive voice verb translated as "raised", can hardly be called an argument from silence.

However, what you are using is your usual arguments from your carnal wisdom, mind and thinking and which is why the truth will continue to be hidden from you also and just like it was for the rebellious Jews of Jesus' day.

Matthew 11:25-26​

New International Version​

25 At that time Jesus said, “I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. 26 Yes, Father, for this is what you were pleased to do.

1 Corinthians 2:13-16​

New King James Version​

13 These things we also speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teaches but which the Holy Spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things (from the written scriptures) with spiritual (words from the Holy Spirit). 14 But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. 15 But he who is spiritual judges all things, yet he himself is rightly judged by no one. 16 For “who has known the mind of the Lord that he may instruct Him?” But we (who are led of the Spirit) have the mind of Christ.

1 Corinthians 3​

New King James Version​

3 And I, brethren, could not speak to you as to spiritual people but as to carnal, as to babes in Christ. 2 I fed you with milk and not with solid food; for until now you were not able to receive it, and even now you are still not able; 3 for you are still carnal.
 

Did either John or Jesus' other disciples truly understand Jesus to be saying that he would restore his own life back from the dead? If so, then how do you explain verse 22 below where John uses the passive voice verb "raised" to explain what he heard Jesus to be saying?​

John 2:19-22​

New International Version​

19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.”
20 They replied, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body. 22 After he was raised (passive voice) from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken.
Here is the bottom line on this, for if you or your churches or their scholars believe and teach contrary to the truth that I have pointed out in this Thread and by that passive voice verb that John used in John 2:22 "raised" in order to explain what he understood Jesus to be saying and not to be saying in verse 19, you are teaching a lie.

For that is not what the disciples understood Jesus to be saying in verse 19, that he would raise himself from the dead like you believe and teach, otherwise John wouldn't have used the passive voice verb translated "raised" right after this to speak of what Jesus was meaning in what he said.

Not to mention the fact that none of his disciples giving narrative of his resurrection ever wrote that he raised himself from the dead but that only God did.

How can one be educated in the Greek and also through their hotshot human exegesis and have those doctorate degrees in theology and such and not have seen this in the context of John 2:19-22?

What is worse yet, is how can they teach dogmatically that Jesus in this passage said that he would raise himself from the dead, when the passage does not prove this to be the fact at all but instead to the contrary and therefore it would be a lie to teach that it does also?
 
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Here is the bottom line on this, for if you or your churches or their scholars believe and teach contrary to the truth that I have pointed out in this Thread and by that passive voice verb that John used in John 2:22 "raised" in order to explain what he understood Jesus to be saying and not to be saying in verse 19, you are teaching a lie.

For that is not what the disciples understood Jesus to be saying in verse 19, that he would raise himself from the dead like you believe and teach, otherwise John wouldn't have used the passive voice verb translated "raised" right after this to speak of what Jesus was meaning in what he said.

Not to mention the fact that none of his disciples giving narrative of his resurrection ever wrote that he raised himself from the dead but that only God did.

How can one be educated in the Greek and also through their hotshot human exegesis and have those doctorate degrees in theology and such and not have seen this in the context of John 2:19-22?

What is worse yet, is how can they teach dogmatically that Jesus in this passage said that he would raise himself from the dead, when the passage does not prove this to be the fact at all but instead to the contrary and therefore it would be a lie to teach that it does also?
You are wrong and deny the very words of the Lord. Just another cult attacking Christianity.

Jesus said, “I am the resurrection and the life” John 11:25.

Jesus said He was the resurrection Himself; He has absolute authority over life and death (Rev 1:18). Jesus is God. He could say He would raise up His body on the third day because He, being God, has power over death.

“I lay down my life—only to take it up again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down and authority to take it up again.”

Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
 
You are wrong and deny the very words of the Lord. Just another cult attacking Christianity.

Jesus said, “I am the resurrection and the life” John 11:25.

Jesus said He was the resurrection Himself; He has absolute authority over life and death (Rev 1:18). Jesus is God. He could say He would raise up His body on the third day because He, being God, has power over death.

“I lay down my life—only to take it up again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down and authority to take it up again.”

Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
LOL's, for when Jesus called himself the resurrection and life, it is because God made him thus and for all who would believe in God through Christ.


However, he didn't raise himself from the dead and I have proven this from John 2:16-22 and also through John 10:17-18 as well.


Furthermore, God even gave him the life that he had within him and both for himself and also to give to all who would believe in God through him and Jesus himself told you this in both John 5:26 and John 6:57 and yet you reject his words for the love of your false doctrines about it instead.


John 5:26 "For just as the Father has life in himself SO HE HAS GIVEN UNTO THE SON TO HAVE LIFE IN HIMSELF ALSO"

John 6:57 "For just as The Living Father has sent me AND I LIVE BECAUSE OF THE FATHER, so he who eats of me shall live because of me"


Concerning John 10:17-18, what Jesus was saying, is that his receiving his life back from the dead would be because he obeyed the commandment of God to lay it down of his own will first and the authority he was speaking of, was God's word on it because God cannot lie.



We also are promised a resurrection unto eternal life by our obedience to God's commandment also and his commandment for us is to believe and obey the gospel message and our authority on it is also the word of God on it, and because God cannot lie.

That is the true context of Jesus' words and if you look at John 10:17 again, Jesus even said it, "Therefore the Father loves me, because I lay down my life
"hina" IN ORDER THAT I might receive it back again.

Therefore, the only way that Jesus took an active part in his own resurrection, was by his obedience to the Commandment of God that if he laid it down in death first, he would receive it back again from the dead because of it and his authority on this, was God's word on it because God cannot lie.
 
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herman

Member
What verses come before John 5:26 and John 6:57? What you fail to notice is that John told us that Jesus had life in Himself BEFORE His incarnation. John 1:4, "In Him was life, and the life was the light of men." Also, 1 John 1:1-2, "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld and our hands handled, concering the "WORD OF LIFE." Verse 2, and the life was manifested and we have seen and bear witness and proclaim to you THE ETERNAL LIFE witch was WITH the Father and was manifested to us."

Here Jesus Christ is identified as being with the Father when? John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Logos/Word/Jesus Christ, and the Word was "WITH" God, and the Word was God." Verse 2, "He or that one was in the beginning WITH God."

This power was given back to Him AFTER His resurrection, after He had accomplished His mission as a man. Now, for a pious Jew to ascribe all power in heaven and earth to ANYONE is for him to acknowledge the absolute deity of that person, period. The words of Jesus at John 5:26 was to show Jesus received His authority from His Father thereby giving credibility to the mission of Jesus as a man by His Father.

In Him,
herman
 
What verses come before John 5:26 and John 6:57? What you fail to notice is that John told us that Jesus had life in Himself BEFORE His incarnation. John 1:4, "In Him was life, and the life was the light of men." Also, 1 John 1:1-2, "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld and our hands handled, concering the "WORD OF LIFE." Verse 2, and the life was manifested and we have seen and bear witness and proclaim to you THE ETERNAL LIFE witch was WITH the Father and was manifested to us."

Here Jesus Christ is identified as being with the Father when? John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Logos/Word/Jesus Christ, and the Word was "WITH" God, and the Word was God." Verse 2, "He or that one was in the beginning WITH God."

This power was given back to Him AFTER His resurrection, after He had accomplished His mission as a man. Now, for a pious Jew to ascribe all power in heaven and earth to ANYONE is for him to acknowledge the absolute deity of that person, period. The words of Jesus at John 5:26 was to show Jesus received His authority from His Father thereby giving credibility to the mission of Jesus as a man by His Father.

In Him,
herman
Which once again reveals ignorance on your part, for if you had noticed in verse 6, John the Baptist is already sent from God to bear witness of the light of God reflected from Jesus and this was also said before John 1:14 likewise and where John says "and the Logos was made flesh".

This proves that this is not all in exacting chronological order like you trins falsely interpret it to be and therefore everything past verse 3 is speaking of the Logos already having become flesh and then John just makes it more explicit and clear in verses 14-18.

There is no way around this Sir, for Jesus very clearly told us that he not only received his life from his Father in John 5:26, but that he lives because of the Father and in like manor that we will also if we receive (eat of him) it from him and through his sacrifice for our sins on the cross.

The verses that come before both of these passages still do not change what Jesus said in them either, for if he was God, he would already have the life within him to give to believers to begin with being God and whose eternal life is one of his attributes and substance as being God.

Also, when John says "and the Logos was God", it requires us to understand what he meant this to mean by the full definition of the word Logos and the full definition can be expressed as "the Mind of God, either not spoken or spoken".

Therefore, the Logos was God in regards to God as his mind, his thinking and reasoning, either spoken or not spoken and also written in the Holy Scriptures after the creation and his mind was centered on his Son whom he would send into the world and through and in which he created all things.

For what does it say about this in Hebrews, "I come in the volume of the book (The Logos) written of me to do your will Oh God" and therefore the mind of God = Logos that was in the beginning unspoken yet and concerning Christ and then was spoken after the creation unto men and written in the scriptures also, was made flesh and became a living reality in the birth of the human heir and Son of God Jesus the Christ.

For God knew in advance of the creation that the creation would be corrupted by the free will that he would give to the creature made in his own image and through his disobedience.

Therefore before he even created anything at all, he already had the plan at the center of his mind for its redemption and restoration to it original purpose and to be conformed to his image and that plan was in his human Son and heir Jesus Christ.

When John uses the word "pros" and as translated "with", he is revealing by this, that God was reciprocating with his own mind and thoughts =Logos "pros" towards himself and just like all men and women do who are created in his image likewise.

In other words, it expresses the fact that God was thinking towards himself

Concerning 1 John 1:1-2, the beginning here is not having anything to do with a pre existence of Jesus before the creation but rather this is referring to the beginning as when he was first manifested to his disciples.

1 Peter 1:20 Who verily was foreknown before the foundation of the world (in the Logos = Mind of God) but was manifest in these last days for you".

Sir if Jesus was ever God and then became a man but didn't have every bit of his power as God, then he never was God.

For God cannot change and the Bible is clear on this, so I haven't a clue what you are talking about in saying that he had to be restored to his power after his resurrection, for that is nonsense.
 
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What verses come before John 5:26 and John 6:57? What you fail to notice is that John told us that Jesus had life in Himself BEFORE His incarnation. John 1:4, "In Him was life, and the life was the light of men." Also, 1 John 1:1-2, "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld and our hands handled, concering the "WORD OF LIFE." Verse 2, and the life was manifested and we have seen and bear witness and proclaim to you THE ETERNAL LIFE witch was WITH the Father and was manifested to us."

Here Jesus Christ is identified as being with the Father when? John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Logos/Word/Jesus Christ, and the Word was "WITH" God, and the Word was God." Verse 2, "He or that one was in the beginning WITH God."

This power was given back to Him AFTER His resurrection, after He had accomplished His mission as a man. Now, for a pious Jew to ascribe all power in heaven and earth to ANYONE is for him to acknowledge the absolute deity of that person, period. The words of Jesus at John 5:26 was to show Jesus received His authority from His Father thereby giving credibility to the mission of Jesus as a man by His Father.

In Him,
herman
One other thing here that I forgot to mention in my previous post in replying to your post above.

For when it says "the eternal life that was "pros" with the Father and which was manifest to us". That is once again referring to God's plan of eternal life through his sending Jesus and that was with "pros" him and again in his Logos= Mind, plan and foreknowledge before the world was.

1 Peter 1:20 "who truly was foreknown (in God's Logos = Mind) before the foundation of the world but was in these last days manifest for you" and you should be able to see here the resemblance between Peters words here and 1 John 1:2.

There is no such definition of the Logos that makes it a person by definition, so only when it was made flesh, did it become a sentient living human person and God's greatest human heir and descendant of David to sit upon his throne "Jesus Christ".
 
One other thing here that I forgot to mention in my previous post in replying to your post above.

For when it says "the eternal life that was "pros" with the Father and which was manifest to us". That is once again referring to God's plan of eternal life through his sending Jesus and that was with "pros" him and again in his Logos= Mind, plan and foreknowledge before the world was.

1 Peter 1:20 "who truly was foreknown (in God's Logos = Mind) before the foundation of the world but was in these last days manifest for you" and you should be able to see here the resemblance between Peters words here and 1 John 1:2.

There is no such definition of the Logos that makes it a person by definition, so only when it was made flesh, did it become a sentient living human person and God's greatest human heir and descendant of David to sit upon his throne "Jesus Christ".
Jesus is eternal (“In the beginning was the Word”)

-Jesus was with God prior to coming to earth (“the Word was with God”)

-Jesus is God (“the Word was God.”)

-Jesus is Creator (“All things were made through him”)

-Jesus is the Giver of Life (“In him was life”)

-Jesus became human to live among us (“the Word became flesh and dwelt among us”)
 
Jesus is eternal (“In the beginning was the Word”)

-Jesus was with God prior to coming to earth (“the Word was with God”)

-Jesus is God (“the Word was God.”)

-Jesus is Creator (“All things were made through him”)

-Jesus is the Giver of Life (“In him was life”)

-Jesus became human to live among us (“the Word became flesh and dwelt among us”)
Sorry but the word Logos by its very definition and how it was used by philosophers, defined revolves around God in regards to his mind and his thinking and reasoning, either not spoken or spoken and you should be able to see this in the fact that our word Logic comes from this word and logic has to do with the mind 100%

Sorry but the scriptures actually never call Jesus himself he creator but only say that through and in Jesus and for God's purpose in Jesus everything was created.

This is why you will not see any thing that states "Jesus created all things" either.

There is no definition of the Logos before your apostate trin churches put inflections upon the word that never before existed, that it can refer to a person.

However, it can revolve around a person of whom God would send to redeem and restore the creation that he knew in advance would fall into corruption from sin and this is what John is using the word to speak of also.

Therefore when John says, "and the Logos became flesh", it means that God's mind = Logos that revolved around and that was centered upon his sending the human seed of he second man Jesus into the womb of Mary and to replace Adam the first man and his failed race, became a living reality in the flesh instead.


For before this, Jesus only pre existed as conceived in God's mind the Logos.

This is what John is revealing also and that the life of God would be in this person and given unto him by God for both himself and all those who would believe in God through him and his sacrifice for their sins


Jesus only gave the life that God first gave to him and there is simply no way around this for trins either, for Jesus himself told us this in the verses below.

John 5:26 "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has given unto the Son to have life in himself also".

John 6:57 "For just as The Living Father has sent me and I live because of the Father, so he who eats of me (
receives the sacrifice made in his flesh for their sins) shall live because of me".


There is no way around this, for Jesus very clearly reveals that the life comes from the Father and not from him but instead through him from the Father unto us who repent and believe and it is just that clear and simple also.
 
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