Keeping the commandments and LDS theology

Bonnie

Super Member
I believe he meant what he said when he said, "I said, ye are gods". Don't you?

That's not what he said. I believe you are paraphrasing your traditions into what he said.
completing the above phrase,
There is no god besides me - implies there are other gods, they are not beside him
There is no god like you - implies there are other gods that are not like him
The fool says "there is no god"

So, ripping the verses out of context only serves your false traditions. Why can't you accept the Bible's message. None of the verses you list state that there are no other gods. The Bible repeatedly states that there are other gods, both old and new testaments and that there is no other god like Jehovah, he alone is our Savior. There is no other Savior. He alone is Savior, but we know that God, His Father and Our Father is not our Savior.
I believe the term "gods" was used in irony, and was a TITLE, since in a few places in Deuteronomy, judges were called "gods." And they were human judges.

I am not ripping any verses out of context. That is what is done in Mormonism. Theo and I have both shown you dozens of Bible verses that clearly say that ONLY ONE GOD EXISTS.

HOW does God saying "there are no gods besides Me" imply that there are other gods? God didn't mean there were no other gods standing NEXT to Him, but that there are NO other Gods APART FROM Him. That is what "besides" means, BoJ.

besides
[bəˈsīdz]

PREPOSITION
  1. in addition to; apart from.
    "I have no other family besides my parents" ·

    synonyms:
    apart from · other than · aside from · but for · save for · not counting
  1. You can see here other Translations of Is. 45:5: https://biblehub.com/isaiah/45-5.htm

  2. So, no I was NOT paraphrasing.
 
Last edited:

Bonnie

Super Member
Sure, we know that. Just like believing that God is one being with three personalities does not mean that He actually is one being with three personalities.

The gods mentioned in Ps 82 and repeated by Jesus Christ in John 10 are not "gods of the nations". And from what we can see in the text referring to the divine council, Israel didn't go whoring after them. :rolleyes:

I'm pretty sure you don't believe this gods listed in Ps 82 are gods of the nations. Why would you use irrelevant verses from the OT as an argument? The fact remains, that God called these beings, gods. They were all sons of the most high [God]. Bonnie, Ps 82 is not equivocating. There can be no doubt that there are many real gods that God stood in council with who apparently answered to the most high [God]. There are three tiers of gods mentioned in Ps 82 and from the text, NONE of them are idols.
Except the Bible demonstrates that God is one Being composed of three distinct Persons/Personalities/Identities. All three Persons in the Godhead are clearly called "God" yet repeatedly the Bible says that "God is One" and that ONLY one God exists. Why, even your very own BoM plainly says that Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are "ONE GOD.." NOT one in purpose, but ONE GOD. Which even the testimony of the three witnesses says in the forepart of the BoM.
 

Bonnie

Super Member
That's exactly what that means. We have never veered from that theology. We weren't waiting for some scholar or for some ancient copy of the text to reveal that major changes had occurred in the text that lead most of the modern Christian world to incorrect conclusions. We obtained it straight from God and while there is yet more to understand, even for us, it is clear that we don't have to make that course correction. You all do, but you're never going to, not until you abandon your false religions and come join us.

But yes, Bonnie, we have been vindicated by these findings. We aren't the ones who don't understand it. You all are.
No, you received it from the liar and false prophet, Joseph Smith, jr. Since most of what he taught as doctrine contradicts what the Bible actually says--like in his wretched KFS--then we know that what Smith taught are lies and did NOT come from God, but from the devil, the father of lies. Please leave your false church behind and believe in the true Jesus Christ of the Bible, who alone saves and saves completely.
 

Bonnie

Super Member
Th
Sure, we know that. Just like believing that God is one being with three personalities does not mean that He actually is one being with three personalities.

The gods mentioned in Ps 82 and repeated by Jesus Christ in John 10 are not "gods of the nations". And from what we can see in the text referring to the divine council, Israel didn't go whoring after them. :rolleyes:

I'm pretty sure you don't believe this gods listed in Ps 82 are gods of the nations. Why would you use irrelevant verses from the OT as an argument? The fact remains, that God called these beings, gods. They were all sons of the most high [God]. Bonnie, Ps 82 is not equivocating. There can be no doubt that there are many real gods that God stood in council with who apparently answered to the most high [God]. There are three tiers of gods mentioned in Ps 82 and from the text, NONE of them are idols.
Are these "gods" deity BY NATURE? Yes or no?

But Israel in its long history--and Judah--DID go whoring after other gods--and the Bible says that the "gods" of the nations are
Yes. Most definitely. He just said it and he said the scriptures cannot be broken. Bonnie, do you think that Jesus himself, believed he was God? Did he not tell Mary that he had yet to ascend to his God? Doesn't that indicate that there were at least two gods that he believed existed? And by John 10, that there were many, many more gods that existed in the universe? Was Jesus a true God? Was His God a true God? Do you have any understanding of the scriptures?
"That they may believe in You, the ONLY TRUE GOD, and in Jesus Christ, Whom You have sent." (John 17:3).

Did Jesus say there were more than one deity out there?

And yes, Jesus did indeed believe that HE is God. He accepted worship even in His human, humble state. He stated that "before Abraham existed, I AM." He said that "I and the Father are One" and the Pharisees wanted to stone Him, Jesus didn't mean just "one in purpose" which was NOT a stoning offense. Claiming to be GOD WAS--unless it were true. When Thomas said to Him, after His resurrection, "My Lord and my God!" he said "the Lord of me and the God of me!" But Jesus did not correct him, did He? Instead, He noted that Thomas believed because he saw Jesus with his own eyes. But we who believe even though we have not physically seen Him are still blessed.

The Father is the God of Jesus IN HIS HUMANITY but not in His Godhood. Simple as that, especially since the entire Biblical witness testifies that ONLY ONE TRUE GOD EXISTS. All others called "gods" are not deity by nature. They are either created angels--mighty ones--demons, idols--and human judges with the title of "gods." Because they act in God's place and in His Name.
 

Bonnie

Super Member
There aren't any scriptures that say no other gods exist.
Yes there are:

Isaiah 45:5-6 New American Standard Bible (NASB)​

5 I am the LORD {YHWH}, and there is no one else;
There is no God except Me.
I will arm you, though you have not known Me,
6 So that people may know from the rising to the setting of the sun
That there is no one besides Me.
I am the LORD {YHWH}, and there is no one else

Is. 43, NASB

10 “You are My witnesses,” declares the LORD {YHWH},
“And My servant whom I have chosen,
So that you may know and believe Me
And understand that I am He.
Before Me there was no God formed,
And there will be none after Me.
11 I, only I, am the LORD {YHWH},
And there is no savior besides Me.

12 It is I who have declared and saved and proclaimed,
And there was no strange god among you;
So you are My witnesses,” declares the LORD {YHWH},
“And I am God.
13 Even from eternity I am He,
And there is no one who can rescue from My hand;
I act, and who can reverse it?”

and:

Is. 44:8, NASB

Do not tremble and do not be afraid;
Have I not long since announced it to you and declared it?
And you are My witnesses.
Is there any God besides Me,
Or is there any other Rock?
I know of none.’”

In the last one, God is asking a rhetorical question, and the answer is obvious--no, there is no other Rock, no other God but God. IF HE knows of no other, then how can anyone think that there are other deities out in the universe?

God says no God came before Him and none will be formed AFTER Him. That means He alone is God. So much for Mormons thinking they can work their way up to godhood and be just like Mormon heavenly Father and become gods themselves and creators of worlds and populate them with their own spirit children put in mortal bodies...what a lie from the father of lies!
 
Last edited:

Bonnie

Super Member
Yes. That's what he said, didn't he? Did he not say that God said, "ye are gods" and then back it up with a statement, "the scriptures cannot be broken"? Bonnie, that's a flat out statement that there are other gods in the universe and He said that God said so. Your adjective is irrelevant. Jesus did not use it and it doesn't exist in Ps 82 either.

Again, this is just showing that what you think we believe, is not what we believe and shouldn't even be part of your argument because you don't know what you're talking about.

Yes. God the father was "once a man on an earth" just like Jesus Christ was "once a man on an earth". That's what we believe. The rest if modern Christian critical misinformation about what we believe. He did not need to learn how to become a god anymore than did Jesus. That is what the KFD states contrary to your misinformation about that text. But it is apparent that both Jesus and his Father and our Father, did go from one glory to another. We can easily see that in Jesus' life. He was once a spirit, then received a body, then died and received a resurrected body never to be separated from that body.

Our critics seem to ignore one critical factor in the life of Jesus Christ. The fact that he could die like a man. That couldn't happen until be became a man. He entered life, essentially in the same condition that Adam did. They were both born with the innate capacity to live forever and, apparently, the innate ability to choose to die. Christ, now, cannot longer choose to die, just as his Father also cannot choose to die. Their body and spirit are one, just as we hope that in Christ, our body and spirit will be one.
About your last paragraph...no, we "critics" do NOT ignore one critical factor about the life of Jesus Christ! Show us where we denied He could "die like a man". Of course He could and did! Which is why He had to BECOME a human being, born of a woman, born under the Law, so He could keep the Law perfectly in our stead, to be the perfect ransom sacrifice for our sins, on Calvary's cross!

But get this--one thing about Jesus Christ does NOT pertain to Adam--Jesus was FIRST GOD! He was FIRST deity, the eternal Word of God, Who was with God and who WAS God. At some point in history, He took on the additional nature of man--but He never stopped being God! Instead, He "humbled Himself" and took on the nature of man and the most perfect Servant. He LIMITED His heavenly privileges and powers while in this humbled state. Adam did NOT do that at all! Adam is and was ONLY a human being with human nature--and, incidentally, never first Michael the archangel.
 

Bonnie

Super Member
They've been answered. You may not like the answers, but that does not mean that your questions haven't been answered.
Let's answer them again.

This question is irrelevant. The fact is, God called them gods, twice. Apparently, God's definition of a god is not the same as yours. Even God noted in Adam AFTER he partook of the forbidden fruit. "They have become as one of US..."
Paraphrasing, they have become as one of the gods...

That seems pretty strait forward. Perhaps, God defines a god as one knowing good and evil.

The answer to the first question is in the text. They will die like men and fall like one of the princes IF they do not judge justly and not show partiality to the wicked.
The answer to your second question is, apparently, yes. Didn't Jesus die? Isn't he God?
The answer to your third question is the same as the answer to your second question.

Again, this question is totally irrelevant. Your "if" clause makes an assumption that can't be found in the text. Nothing in the text suggest that they are on earth or that anyone would contact them or that they were making any civil or religious judgment. The problem posed is that they judge justly. It says nothing of civil judgement or religious judgement. Bonnie, everyone judges. They do not have to be a ruler or a judge or a leader in religion. This passage applies to everyone, just as the Isaiah passages that you don't seem to grasp his message but love to draw a connection claim. It is a human problem. Ps 82 is talking about everyone who has the capacity to judge.

This is one of those obtuse questions based on what you "think" we believe and has nothing to do with Ps 82.
1. No they are not exalted humans. They aren't exalted because they can die like men.
2. I don't know. Does the passage tell us why they are doing it? No
3. That seems to be a pandemic here as well. Why do people do it here? Why did a third of the host of heaven do it there? Personally, I think it is the nature of most men to cheat or fix the odds in their favor or the favor of their friends.
4. Your last question is incoherent. I'm not sure what your asking, maybe it, again is based on what you think we believe and should be worded, "Can humans be exalted to deity in sin?" The answer is no. But with God, all things are possible. That's what Jesus said. I believe him. Do you?

When are you finally going to accept our straight-forward and honest answers?
The other poster never answered my questions. I asked him, not you. If you answered for him, that is fine. But neither on these new boards or on the last two, did I ever receive an answer from the other person.

1. The man became like US--there we have the Triune Godhead hinted at--ONLY in knowing good from evil. God is eternal, uncreated, omniscient, omnipresent, and omnipotent. Man is NONE OF THESE THINGS, so man did not become a god after he sinned. That is nonsense.

2. So, IF these "gods" would die like men and fall like any prince, then that can ONLY mean they are human! You claim that God can die, since Jesus died. But Jesus was FIRST God, who then took on the additional nature of man, so HE COULD DIE. Because God is eternal and uncreated. Man is NOT. This is something Mormons continually choose to forget--Jesus HAD to become a man, HAD TO take on the additional nature of man, so He could die! But His God nature did NOT die on Calvary's cross! Remember what He said in John 2:19? "Destroy this Temple and in 3 days I will raise it up." And John says He meant the temple of His body. Later on, the NT says that GOD raised Jesus' dead body from the grave. Here, in John, Jesus says HE will do it. Therefore, His Deity did NOT die when He died on the cross--else, how could He raise up His own dead body from the grave?

3. Your "answer" here is just a waffle. Again, IF these "gods" in Ps. 82 are real, true gods, and they judge people on earth, then HOW would people contact them to make judgments? I never said the text says they do judge in civil and religious cases. But the text does say that they favor the wicked and do not uphold the widow and orphan. Remember, God did appoint judges in the OT LoM, and in a few places, they WERE called "elohim." But remember these verses from Isaiah 3?

NIV:
Woe to the wicked!
Disaster is upon them!
They will be paid back
for what their hands have done.
12 Youths oppress my people,
women rule over them.
My people, your guides lead you astray;
they turn you from the path.
13 The Lord takes his place in court;
he rises to judge the people.
14 The Lord enters into judgment
against the elders and leaders of his people:
“It is you who have ruined my vineyard;
the plunder from the poor is in your houses.
15 What do you mean by crushing my people
and grinding the faces of the poor?”

declares the Lord, the Lord Almighty.

Now, compare these and esp. the bolded parts to Ps. 82:

God presides in the great assembly;
he renders judgment among the “gods”:
2 “How long will you defend the unjust
and show partiality to the wicked?
3 Defend the weak and the fatherless;
uphold the cause of the poor and the oppressed.
4 Rescue the weak and the needy;
deliver them from the hand of the wicked.

Notice the similarity in tone and wording and CONTENT. Now, defending the UNjust and showing partiality to the wicked are rendering false judgments. Else, IN WHAT are these 'gods" showing partiality to the wicked and defending the unjust?

So, no, God is NOT talking about EVERYONE judging justly. It is talking about rulers and judges who favor the wicked and DEFEND the unjust. Certainly we should ALL just as justly and righteously as possible.

So, again are the "gods" in Ps. 82 actual deity or just powerful men?

4. My last question is not incoherent. You managed to answer it, sort of. So, these "gods" are NOT exalted humans, eh? Because they SIN? So, what exactly ARE they, then? Humans with great power or actual deity?

I do appreciate your taking the time to at least attempt to answer my questions. These were relatively straight-forward answers. but I asked them of another and never got ANY answer, not in the past three boards. I am grateful that you at least made an honest effort. Now, if you would kindly just tell me WHO or WHAT you think the gods in Ps. 82 actually ARE?
 
Last edited:

brotherofJared

Well-known member
Nothing was lost. That is a lie from Joseph Smith, Jr. a known liar and proven false prophet.
Once again, you seem to off in some other world having ur own private argument. Joseph Smith didn't have anything to do with the discrepancies uncovered by the Qumran manuscripts.
 

Bonnie

Super Member
Once again, you seem to off in some other world having ur own private argument. Joseph Smith didn't have anything to do with the discrepancies uncovered by the Qumran manuscripts.
I was talking about this:

Looks pretty plain and precious to me.
If this much was lost, can you imagine how much more was lost? No. No one can because he have nothing to compare it too, except maybe the church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints.
Nothing was lost. That is a lie from Joseph Smith, Jr. a known liar and proven false prophet.

The LIE was about Smith saying many plain and precious things were taken out of the bible and he supposedly "restored" them. That is a lie. I was unclear and I apologize for it.

And we do indeed have something to compare and contrast--ALL ancient Hebrew and Greek OT and NT copies of the Bible, God's word.
 

brotherofJared

Well-known member
Yes, there are variations in this verse in the Bible, due to different manuscript copies
There are a number of discrepancies. but there's no way anyone can know if they are errors without the original manuscripts.

However, it seems apparent to me that the scribes modified the language to suit their theology which appears to have significantly changed from that which Moses originally delivered. That is what the Catholics did with the Bible that they got and that is what you all are doing.

I don't believe any of you will accept any changes that disagree with your existing theology regardless of what is discovered in earlier manuscripts or even if we had the original manuscripts.

I think "sons of God" is fine, since it implies that "sons" here means all different people on earth.
This looks to me like it's fine to you because it allows you to keep your false notions about what it means. The term "sons of God" has special meaning in the scriptures, aside from, simply "different people on earth". For example in PS 82, it is used to identify the members of the Divine council. The Divine council was made up of elohim or gods. It would seem that these sons of God also shouted for joy when the foundations of the world were laid... Obviously, they were not on the earth. ;)
 

dberrie2020

Well-known member
2. So, IF these "gods" would die like men and fall like any prince, then that can ONLY mean they are human! You claim that God can die, since Jesus died. But Jesus was FIRST God, who then took on the additional nature of man...
Well--if God can die, and He was first God--then why couldn't other gods die also?

IOW--if the God of gods can die--how is that evidence other gods could not die?
 

dberrie2020

Well-known member
4. My last question is not incoherent. You managed to answer it, sort of. So, these "gods" are NOT exalted humans, eh? Because they SIN? So, what exactly ARE they, then? Humans with great power or actual deity?

Now, if you would kindly just tell me WHO or WHAT you think the gods in Ps. 82 actually ARE?
They are exactly what was testified to--gods within the divine council:

Psalm 82:1---English Standard Version
1 God has taken his place in the divine council;
in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:

That they were both gods--and sit on the divine council, and God takes His place among them--is evidence they are heavenly beings--and deified.
 

dberrie2020

Well-known member
The LDS connect keeping the commandments with entering into life:

Matthew 19:16-19---King James Version
16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
18 He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
19 Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

I would like to get back to the OP--and challenge anyone to explain why the LDS preach what the Biblical text testifies to above--IE--God connects keeping the commandments with eternal life.

How do the critics explain their theology here--which denies the connection between keeping the commandments with obtaining eternal life?
 

Bonnie

Super Member
There are a number of discrepancies. but there's no way anyone can know if they are errors without the original manuscripts.

However, it seems apparent to me that the scribes modified the language to suit their theology which appears to have significantly changed from that which Moses originally delivered. That is what the Catholics did with the Bible that they got and that is what you all are doing.

I don't believe any of you will accept any changes that disagree with your existing theology regardless of what is discovered in earlier manuscripts or even if we had the original manuscripts.


This looks to me like it's fine to you because it allows you to keep your false notions about what it means. The term "sons of God" has special meaning in the scriptures, aside from, simply "different people on earth". For example in PS 82, it is used to identify the members of the Divine council. The Divine council was made up of elohim or gods. It would seem that these sons of God also shouted for joy when the foundations of the world were laid... Obviously, they were not on the earth. ;)
The "sons of God" could very well have been angels, which pre-existed humans. But I do note your "appears" and "apparent". To you. But what we DO have is a rich depository of ancient Hebrew and Greek NT copies--thousands of them, whole or in part that scholars can compare and contrast. What do we have with the BoM? A book that was riddled with errors in its first edition, many of them grammatical, from the get-go. Remember this:

This study will show that there have been thousands of changes in the Book of Mormon and that Joseph Fielding Smith is the one who is not telling the truth. As to his statement that the man who printed the first edition was unfriendly and allowed errors to creep into the book, the famous Mormon Historian B. H. Roberts has already stated that the first edition of the Book of Mormon was "singularly free from typographical errors" and that the printer could not be blamed for the many mistakes that are found in the Book of Mormon:

"That errors of grammar and faults in dictation do exist in the Book of Mormon (and more especially and abundantly in the first edition) must be conceded; and what is more, while some of the errors may be referred to inefficient proof-reading, such as is to be expected in a country printing establishment, yet such is the nature of the errors in question, and so interwoven are they throughout the diction of the Book, that they may not be disposed of by saying they result from inefficient proof-reading or referring them to the mischievous disposition of the 'typos' or the unfriendliness of the publishing house. The errors are constitutional in their character; they are of the web and woof of the style, and not such errors as may be classed as typographical. Indeed, the first edition of the Book of Mormon is SINGULARLY FREE FROM TYPOGRAPHICAL ERRORS." (Defense of the Faith, by B. H. Roberts, pp. 280-281; reprinted in A New Witness For Christ in America, by Francis W. Kirkham, Vol. 1, pp. 200-201)

This was by a Mormon historian, B. H. Roberts. Remember the printer had to go by the written manuscript of the BoM.

John H. Gilbert, the man who helped to print the Book of Mormon, claimed that the Mormons did not want him to correct the grammatical errors which were in the manuscript:

"When the printer was ready to commence work, Harris was notified, and Hyrum Smith brought the first installment of manuscript ... On the second day — Harris and Smith being in the office — I called their attention to a grammatical error, and asked whether I should correct it? Harris consulted with Smith a short time, and turned to me and said: 'The Old Testament is ungrammatical, set it as it is written.' ... .

"Cowdery held and looked over the manuscript when most of the proofs were read. Martin Harris once or twice, and Hyrum Smith once, Grandin supposing these men could read their own WRITING as well, if not better, than any one else; and if there are any discrepancies between the Palmyra edition and the manuscript these men should be held responsible." (Memorandum, made by John H. Gilbert, Esq., September 8, 1892, Palmyra, N.Y., printed in Joseph Smith Begins His Work, Vol. 1, Introduction)
[/I]



DO note that this shows that the errors were in the WRITTEN manuscript. So the errors were already IN THE ORIGINAL WRITTEN MANUSCRIPT. Unlike the Bible.

The fact remains--the Bible, both OT and NT--has been remarkably well-preserved, even with scribal errors. Scholars can read, compare, and contrast the many thousands of copies to determine the best translation which they continue to do, today.

Now, do you think the "gods" of Ps. 82 are true deity or false gods? What do YOU think they are, if they are NOT exalted humans, since they sinned? Remember, Paul wrote that there are gods that are "NO gods BY NATURE."

So, what are these beings called "gods" in Ps. 82? In your opinion?
 
Last edited:

Bonnie

Super Member
They are exactly what was testified to--gods within the divine council:

Psalm 82:1---English Standard Version
1 God has taken his place in the divine council;
in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:

That they were both gods--and sit on the divine council, and God takes His place among them--is evidence they are heavenly beings--and deified.
When are you going to answer my questions about Ps. 82? Would you like me to repeat them?


But here is a new one: Do you think the "gods" in Ps. 82 are TRUE GODS--deity BY NATURE--or false gods--like demons or unjust human judges? Or some other spirit beings?
 
Last edited:

Bonnie

Super Member
You wrote this, boJ:

And that His Father was "once a man on an earth" who had to learn how to become a god, by going from one glory to another until he achieved godhood?
Again, this is just showing that what you think we believe, is not what we believe and shouldn't even be part of your argument because you don't know what you're talking about.

Yes. God the father was "once a man on an earth" just like Jesus Christ was "once a man on an earth".

I am sorry but what I wrote is precisely what Smith taught in the KFS. It has been put down on here multiple times. Why do you deny it?

Yet, then you go on to admit that "God the father was one a man on an earth." So, first you deny it, then you affirm it...? Which is it?

But DO Show us from the Bible where God the FATHER was ever incarnated as a human being. SHOW US, boJ. Mormons boast that they believe the Bible, but they don't even believe the most fundamental teachings of the Bible--that there is ONLY ONE TRUE GOD and GOD IS SPIRIT.

God the FATHER was NEVER incarnated as a human being. HE WAS NEVER A MORTAL MAN. And what you supposed heavenly father did is the EXACT OPPOSITE of what Jesus did.

1. Mormon god the Father was FIRST A MAN on an earth, who had to learn how to become a god, going from one glory to another.

2. Jesus was FIRST GOD, the eternal WORD OF GOD, who THEN took on the additional nature of man, at His Incarnation, so He COULD be born as one of us, born under the Law, so He could keep the Law perfectly as a man and be the perfect and once-for-all-time offering for our sins, so we can have forgiveness of sins, and life eternal in His name. But HE NEVER STOPPED BEING GOD. Instead, He gave up nearly all the glory and heavenly privileges of being God, when He became man. The three disciples on the Mount of Transfiguration got a tiny glimpse of Jesus' glory when He allowed them to see Him transformed before their eyes.

Now, do you not know what was in the King Follett Discourse, that Smith taught about your god? And remember the Snow couplet, which Smith endorsed?
 

Aaron32

Well-known member
Amazing, isn't it? Those in Mormonism must ONLY see what certain Bible verses seem to say, to the exclusion of all others that contradict what they are taught to believe. They must wear spiritual versions of these:

View attachment 22

I put down these verses that are similar in tone and substance to the Ps. 82 ones, that clearly show who it is who is corrupt and judges unfairly and favors the wicked:




Notice the similarity in content and tone, esp. in Is. 3. What do you think?
I’m at a total loss of what your point is, or how you’ve proven it.
 

Aaron32

Well-known member
Why do you ignore John 1:1, John 8:58, John 20:28, Col. 2:9, Rev. 1:17, and 2:1, and 22:12-13? Why do you then ignore all the Bible verses that clearly state there is ONLY ONE GOD, and God is ONE--yet the Bible clearly calls ALL three Persons in the Godhead GOD--which demonstrates the Triune Godhead?

And why do you ignore the fact that the BoM is CLEARLY momotheistic and Trinitarian?

WHY do you continually demonstrate Mormon debate tactics no. 5 in my signature?
There’s only Ond God to Israel. (Jehovah/Jesus Christ)
“I am the Lord thy God”
Why say “thy”, why not just “I am God”

“Thou shalt have no other gods before me.”
Why address other gods at all if none others exist?

“Honor thy father and thy mother”
Should we assume there’s only one set of parents on the earth? No, you have YOUR parents, I have MINE.

“No man shall serve two masters”
According to you, there’s only one Master.
How does that work?

Thus, the Trinity and related extra-biblical creeds are wrong. God is not a different species. God the Father is the “Most High” God. And to US (His chosen) the is one Lord in whose name we worship the Most High.
Daniel 4:17 “...the most High ruleth in the kingdom of men, and giveth it to whomsoever he will, and setteth up over it the basest of men.”


Hebrews 1:
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
 
Top