Kenosis Heresy

101G

Well-known member
NO Person in Isaiah 44:24, ONLY The ONE Being who is God.
The Person in John 1:3 IS The BEING in Isaiah 44:24.
Next question............................
Well the one person in the Isaiah 44:24 is the LORD, and the One person in John 1:1-3 is the Lord. who is the same ONE person who is God. in both verses. and the LORD all caps is the Father, and the Lord is the Son, ...... BINGO, the same one BEING... "GOD. thank you.

so thank JD you just elininated the trinity clear as day, for the ONE Being God is the SAME "ONE" person in Isaiah 44:24 and John 1:3.... :cool: thanks for the confirmation.

I know you're hurt, and maybe a little angry, because out of your own mouth you have destroyed your own doctoral belief you have believed in these so many years. but go back and read Isaiah 44:24 and John 1:3 again. for it is the SAME one Person, only in Ordinal designation, of First and Last, in Time, Place, rank, and ORDER ... :eek: YIKES!.

it took a while, but finally your own mouth did you in.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
Well the one person in the Isaiah 44:24 is the LORD, and the One person in John 1:1-3 is the Lord. who is the same ONE person who is God. in both verses. and the LORD all caps is the Father, and the Lord is the Son, ...... BINGO, the same one BEING... "GOD. thank you.

so thank JD you just elininated the trinity clear as day, for the ONE Being God is the SAME "ONE" person in Isaiah 44:24 and John 1:3.... :cool: thanks for the confirmation.

I know you're hurt, and maybe a little angry, because out of your own mouth you have destroyed your own doctoral belief you have believed in these so many years. but go back and read Isaiah 44:24 and John 1:3 again. for it is the SAME one Person, only in Ordinal designation, of First and Last, in Time, Place, rank, and ORDER ... :eek: YIKES!.

it took a while, but finally your own mouth did you in.

PICJAG, 101G.
Correction: The ONE Being in Isaiah 44:24 is The Lord.
Indeed, The Father and Son are the same ONE Being.
 

101G

Well-known member
Correction: The ONE Being in Isaiah 44:24 is The Lord.
Indeed, The Father and Son are the same ONE Being.
Yes one BIING, but the same ONE PERSON, for the LORD, all Caps is the Lord in Flesh, the same "PERSON". for Isaiah 44:24 states he this ONE BEING, is all "ALONE" and ALONE means NO other .... drum roll please..... no other "PERSON is present. did you not hear, Isa 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

JG how may person is "I", and "ME?"..... that's right ONE, and ONLY ONE person, case closed.

same being, same one PERSON.

Now JG I believe you went to school, andf took English, ... the class. you was taught "I", and "ME", are single person designation.

now if you was taught this in school, please go and Google both words. "I", and "ME"

so here is the google link for "I" https://www.google.com/search?q=i+m...AGyB5IBAzMuNpgBAKABAcgBCsABAQ&sclient=gws-wiz

and here is the google Link for "me" https://www.google.com/search?q=me+...AFwiAHXAZIBAzAuMpgBAKABAcABAQ&sclient=gws-wiz

and also the Link to the term "BESIDE" as in NO God "beside me. https://www.google.com/search?q=bes...gB4gGSAQMyLTGYAQCgAQKgAQHAAQE&sclient=gws-wiz

you cannot claim IGNORANCE, any more.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
Yes one BIING, but the same ONE PERSON, for the LORD, all Caps is the Lord in Flesh, the same "PERSON". for Isaiah 44:24 states he this ONE BEING, is all "ALONE" and ALONE means NO other .... drum roll please..... no other "PERSON is present. did you not hear, Isa 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

JG how may person is "I", and "ME?"..... that's right ONE, and ONLY ONE person, case closed.

same being, same one PERSON.

Now JG I believe you went to school, andf took English, ... the class. you was taught "I", and "ME", are single person designation.

now if you was taught this in school, please go and Google both words. "I", and "ME"

so here is the google link for "I" https://www.google.com/search?q=i+meaning&rlz=1C1ZKTG_enUS917US918&sxsrf=AOaemvKOQbOkthJIkp0fYixIibNfJWyiQw:1634130356012&ei=tNlmYYoJ4rWq2w-jrKrIDw&ved=0ahUKEwiKs4v7ucfzAhXimmoFHSOWCvkQ4dUDCA4&uact=5&oq=i+meaning&gs_lcp=Cgdnd3Mtd2l6EAMyCggAELEDEIMBEEMyBQgAEIAEMgUIABCABDIFCAAQgAQyBQgAEIAEMgUIABCABDIFCAAQgAQyBQgAEIAEMgUIABCABDIFCAAQgAQ6BwgAEEcQsAM6BwgAELADEEM6BAgjECc6BAgAEEM6CwguEIAEEMcBEK8BOggILhCABBCxAzoFCC4QgAQ6CAgAEIAEELEDOgsIABCxAxCDARCRAjoHCAAQsQMQQzoHCC4QsQMQQzoLCC4QgAQQsQMQgwFKBAhBGABQ2oIBWOCaAWC5nQFoAXACeACAAYMBiAGyB5IBAzMuNpgBAKABAcgBCsABAQ&sclient=gws-wiz

and here is the google Link for "me" https://www.google.com/search?q=me+meaning&rlz=1C1ZKTG_enUS917US918&sxsrf=AOaemvJM9fjYO7c3BjgSZrkBZacTfFP4ag:1634130343287&ei=p9lmYfHcELylqtsPqeu-wAU&ved=0ahUKEwixzIL1ucfzAhW8kmoFHam1D1gQ4dUDCA4&uact=5&oq=me+meaning&gs_lcp=Cgdnd3Mtd2l6EAMyBggAEAcQHjIKCAAQsQMQgwEQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzoLCAAQsQMQgwEQkQI6BQgAEJECSgQIQRgAUNywBljrsgZg1LgGaABwAngAgAFwiAHXAZIBAzAuMpgBAKABAcABAQ&sclient=gws-wiz

and also the Link to the term "BESIDE" as in NO God "beside me. https://www.google.com/search?q=besides+meaning&rlz=1C1ZKTG_enUS917US918&sxsrf=AOaemvJLjbSqNS5XDH8i6DwWDUzkc6VvRg:1634130483037&ei=M9pmYZHDAamjqtsPn6W44Aw&oq=besides+meaning&gs_lcp=Cgdnd3Mtd2l6EAEYADIHCAAQsQMQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIECAAQQzIGCAAQBxAeMgQIABBDMgYIABAHEB4yBggAEAcQHjIGCAAQBxAeSgQIQRgAUNXNA1jVzQNgqdsDaABwAngAgAHiAYgB4gGSAQMyLTGYAQCgAQKgAQHAAQE&sclient=gws-wiz

you cannot claim IGNORANCE, any more.

PICJAG, 101G.
The question should be how many BEINGS, Gods, are referred to in Isaiah 44:24.
Answer: ONE.
 

101G

Well-known member
The question should be how many BEINGS, Gods, are referred to in Isaiah 44:24.
Answer: ONE.
ERROR, there is only ONE BEING, we all Know that, but the LORD is "ONE" person", and this ONE PERSON, the "LORD" said he, he, he, he, was alone and by HIM, HIM, HIM... self.

so you have no excuse as to being, it is only ONE person who made all things, the LORD.
so your excuse is rejected based on scripture, listen, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;"

so JG, how many PERSON is "I" ... answer ONLY ONE PERSON.

so again, your excuse is rejected by God himself.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
ERROR, there is only ONE BEING, we all Know that, but the LORD is "ONE" person", and this ONE PERSON, the "LORD" said he, he, he, he, was alone and by HIM, HIM, HIM... self.

so you have no excuse as to being, it is only ONE person who made all things, the LORD.
so your excuse is rejected based on scripture, listen, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;"

so JG, how many PERSON is "I" ... answer ONLY ONE PERSON.

so again, your excuse is rejected by God himself.

PICJAG, 101G.
The Lord is ONE Being, ONE Lord.
 

101G

Well-known member
The Lord is ONE Being, ONE Lord.
so is the "LORD", all cap, the Lord in Flesh? yes or no.

now if you say God is ONE BEING, then the BEING that is in the flesh... the Christ .... G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') himself, which means person do not G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), but the nature or the being or the power do. and God is not HUMAN.

and if you say God the person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), then tell us how the Spirit then is without guidances, a reckless powerful, ... all powerful Spirit without a conscious person in guidances. now think, if God was 1/3 ... one person, in G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'). then God is not complete, and in division. for if either of the so called person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') then God is not ALMIGHTY God. because the doctrine you states say all three are "EQUAL". well not the case here in Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" Philippians 2:7 "But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:"

now one more thing, is ONE person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), then HOW MUCH of God was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō')? for the Lord Jesus was God in Natural Flesh.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
so is the "LORD", all cap, the Lord in Flesh? yes or no.

now if you say God is ONE BEING, then the BEING that is in the flesh... the Christ .... G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') himself, which means person do not G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), but the nature or the being or the power do. and God is not HUMAN.

and if you say God the person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), then tell us how the Spirit then is without guidances, a reckless powerful, ... all powerful Spirit without a conscious person in guidances. now think, if God was 1/3 ... one person, in G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'). then God is not complete, and in division. for if either of the so called person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') then God is not ALMIGHTY God. because the doctrine you states say all three are "EQUAL". well not the case here in Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" Philippians 2:7 "But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:"

now one more thing, is ONE person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), then HOW MUCH of God was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō')? for the Lord Jesus was God in Natural Flesh.

PICJAG, 101G.
He is The Lord who BECAME flesh in John 1:14,18
 

101G

Well-known member
He is The Lord who BECAME flesh in John 1:14,18
if HE God became Flesh, then how was God G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō')? as said if in Person then 1/3 of God was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), and that's anti bible, as Philippians 2:6 points out. "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" so if the Person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') then he is not God, so it was as Philippians 2:6 points out, his nature was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), and with his nature being G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') and he's one being, the who was running the universe, (remenber you saif.. one being).

so if as Philippians 2:6 clearly stastes, it was no "person" that was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), but NATURE, which now leaves you in a dilemma. for how much of the being wass G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō')...... now you get into division, or PARTS, and God is not divided. do you see your ERROR now?

PICJAG, 101G.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
if HE God became Flesh, then how was God G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō')? as said if in Person then 1/3 of God was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), and that's anti bible, as Philippians 2:6 points out. "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" so if the Person was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') then he is not God, so it was as Philippians 2:6 points out, his nature was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), and with his nature being G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') and he's one being, the who was running the universe, (remenber you saif.. one being).

so if as Philippians 2:6 clearly stastes, it was no "person" that was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), but NATURE, which now leaves you in a dilemma. for how much of the being wass G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō')...... now you get into division, or PARTS, and God is not divided. do you see your ERROR now?

PICJAG, 101G.
Correct. God is UNDIVIDED. And The Son, who is God, (NOT 1/3 of God)became flesh.
 

101G

Well-known member
101G said:
so all of God was in that Flesh then? yes or No, ........ as you said, "God is undivided)".... so, your yes or no answer please.

PICJAG, 101G.
IN that flesh????
God BECAME flesh, i.e. a MAN, NOT merely IN a Man.

well JG, if the One God became a Man, and you said "GOD", the being, the Nature, then you have a dilemma, as i been saying the Man Jesus who is God, according to Phil 2:7 G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') he himself being a man, G2758 κενόω kenoo himself, listen to the definition of G2758 κενόω kenoo 1. to make empty.
2. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify.
[from G2756]
KJV: make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain
Root(s): G2756

now as you said, "GOD", which include all your three persons became a man then God was G2758 κενόω kenoo, or empty, which begs the question if God became a man/empty, who was upholding the universe?

now again, if you say the Father, so was the Father made flesh? if not then the Scriptures say you are in ERROR, LISTEN,, "GOD" was made Flesh, lets check the record again, John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."

well one could say only the WORD, (the Son), was made flesh, well you better see John 1:1c first... (smile), ... :eek: YIKES. for the WORD/Sonwas GOD.

but understand this, the Word is not the Son... only until made flesh, (so who and what was the Son/Word), before being made flesh? that's right ... "GOD", just as John 1:1c states..

so you're reproved.

TRY AGAIN.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

Caroljeen

Active member
Phil 2:5-8
In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
NIV

These translation capture the meaning of the text in its CONTEXT.


New International Version
rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

New Living Translation
Instead, he gave up his divine privileges; he took the humble position of a slave and was born as a human being. When he appeared in human form,

New King James Version
but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.

King James Bible
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:


Thayers Greek Lexicon
namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦ Θεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7

Strongs Lexicon
From kenos; to make empty, i.e. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify -- make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain.

Louw Nida Greek Lexicon
87.70
κενόωb: to completely remove or eliminate elements of high status or rank by eliminating all privileges or prerogatives associated with such status or rank.

What Paul makes very clear in this passage is that in addition to being God, He became man. The Incarnation was not a subtraction of His deity but an addition of humanity to His nature. This passage does not say Jesus gave up His deity but that He laid aside His rights as Deity, assuming the form of a servant in verse 7. The text says He was in the form of God or being in the very nature of God in 2:6. Just as He took upon Himself the "form of a servant" which is a servant by nature, so the "form of God" is God by nature. The word "being" from the phrase: being in the very form of God is a present active participle. This means "continued existence" as God. What Paul is actually saying here is Jesus has always been and still is in the "form of God". If you continue reading the passage Paul really drives this point home so that his readers have no doubt what he is trying to get across to the Philippians. Paul says that every knee will bow and will one day Confess Jesus is LORD. Paul takes the passage in Isaiah 45:23 which clearly refers to Yahweh a name used for God alone and says this of Jesus. The fulfillment of YHWH in Isaiah 45 is none other than Jesus who is God(Yahweh) in the flesh.

He self limited His divine prerogatives via the Incarnation as per Phil 2. In other words did not use them to His advantage but was in submission to the Father for 33 years to accomplish our salvation. All the FULLNESS of DEITY dwells in bodily form. Col 1:19;2:9. Jesus was and is fully God lacking nothing in His Deity.

Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men.

Even through Christ existed in the form of God He did not regard equality with God something that He needed to reach for or grasp. Why because it was already His and never gave that up for a millisecond.

Paul is using syllogisms from the text in Philippians 2.

Just as the term “form of God” in verse six does not mean “less than God” because of the phrase “equality with God" in the prior passage.

It goes to reason in the same way with the 2 phrases in the “form of a servant” and in the “likeness of man” in verse seven do not mean that Jesus was any “less than human,” but instead means He was the same or “equal with all humans.”

That is how the passage reads and how it is to be understood in its " CONTEXT ".

In Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9 the Apostle Paul said, For in HIM (CHRIST) ALL of the “ fullness of deity dwells bodily. “Did Paul use the word fullness there to mean partially? NO as Jesus did not empty Himself of His Deity. Jesus Divinity is FULL, complete lacking in nothing. The ENTIRE Fullness of Deity dwells (is present) bodily in Jesus.

This is how one exegetes the passage rather than using eisegesis- reading ones own thoughts and ideas into the text.

hope this helps !!!
Does Jesus being fully God in his existence as a human with all the attributes of God mean that he cannot limit those divine attributes or quench them or not use them in his existence as a human in order to exist like one of us?
Please explain the Louis Nida greek lexicon definition of kenosis that you referred to.
 
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johnny guitar

Well-known member
101G said:
so all of God was in that Flesh then? yes or No, ........ as you said, "God is undivided)".... so, your yes or no answer please.

PICJAG, 101G.
IN that flesh????
God BECAME flesh, i.e. a MAN, NOT merely IN a Man.

well JG, if the One God became a Man, and you said "GOD", the being, the Nature, then you have a dilemma, as i been saying the Man Jesus who is God, according to Phil 2:7 G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') he himself being a man, G2758 κενόω kenoo himself, listen to the definition of G2758 κενόω kenoo 1. to make empty.
2. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify.
[from G2756]
KJV: make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain
Root(s): G2756

now as you said, "GOD", which include all your three persons became a man then God was G2758 κενόω kenoo, or empty, which begs the question if God became a man/empty, who was upholding the universe?

now again, if you say the Father, so was the Father made flesh? if not then the Scriptures say you are in ERROR, LISTEN,, "GOD" was made Flesh, lets check the record again, John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."

well one could say only the WORD, (the Son), was made flesh, well you better see John 1:1c first... (smile), ... :eek: YIKES. for the WORD/Sonwas GOD.

but understand this, the Word is not the Son... only until made flesh, (so who and what was the Son/Word), before being made flesh? that's right ... "GOD", just as John 1:1c states..

so you're reproved.

TRY AGAIN.

PICJAG, 101G.
Only ONE Person became a Man: The Son.
 

civic

Well-known member
Does Jesus being fully God in his existence as a human with all the attributes of God mean that he cannot limit those divine attributes or quench them or not use them in his existence as a human in order to exist like one of us?
No he had the ability to use them as those attribute were always His and He never gave them up just the right to use them to His own advantage.
 

civic

Well-known member
Please explain the Louis Nida greek lexicon definition of kenosis that you referred to.
Louw Nida Greek Lexicon
87.70
κενόωb: to completely remove or eliminate elements of high status or rank by eliminating all privileges or prerogatives associated with such status or rank.

He did not let His position as God and use that to His advantage by using His privilege's/prerogatives as God (His rank). The right to use His status was removed or elements were the could be used to His advantage. It doesn't say His Deity was removed or His Divine Attributes.
 

Caroljeen

Active member
No he had the ability to use them as those attribute were always His and He never gave them up just the right to use them to His own advantage.
You wrote in your OP "that Jesus self limited his divine prerogatives via the incsrnation".
Does this mean that Jesus self limited his divine attributes in the incarnation and was unaware of them or that he was aware of them during his incarnation but just didn't use them?

Just so you know where I'm coming from, I'm Oneness in regard to my view of God.
 
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Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Does Jesus being fully God in his existence as a human with all the attributes of God mean that he cannot limit those divine attributes or quench them or not use them in his existence as a human in order to exist like one of us?
Please explain the Louis Nida greek lexicon definition of kenosis that you referred to.
Don't be deceived Caroljeen, for one of the Divine attributes of God is his omniscience and which means he knows all things from the end to the beginning and visa versa and this is recorded in Isaiah 46:9-10 and as you can see below.

He even uses this ability above all his other attributes to reveal that because of it, we can know for certain that he alone is God and no one else beside him and being no one else has this ability.

Isaiah 46:
9 Remember the former things, those of long ago;
I am God, and there is no other;
I am God, and there is none like me.
10 I make known the end from the beginning,
from ancient times, what is still to come
.
I say, ‘My purpose will stand,
and I will do all that I please
.’



Now look at what Jesus himself said about both himself and the Father in Matthew 24:36 concerning this below.

Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour (the day of his coming and the end of the age) no man knows, not the angels or the Son but the Father ONLY.


Notice, Jesus not only said he doesn't know it, but that ONLY the Father does and so this is not a matter of him limiting himself from his attributes, for indeed if he was truly God, he could held back from doing many things by his own powers as God, but this is different because he not only said he doesn't know but that ONLY The Father does know period.

So it isn't like having the power to heal and holding back from it, for in order for him not to know the end from the beginning, he would have had to be stricken with amnesia when becoming a man or something like it and which would mean that this attribute would have been totally removed from him when becoming a man.

There is no way around this for trins either.
 
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Caroljeen

Active member
Don't be deceived Caroljeen, for one of the Divine attributes of God is his omniscience and which means he knows all things from the end to the beginning and visa versa and this is recorded in Isaiah 46:9-10 and as you can see below.

He even uses this ability above all his other attributes to reveal that because of it, we can know for certain that he alone is God and no one else beside him and being no one else has this ability.

Isaiah 46:
9 Remember the former things, those of long ago;
I am God, and there is no other;
I am God, and there is none like me.
10 I make known the end from the beginning,
from ancient times, what is still to come
.
I say, ‘My purpose will stand,
and I will do all that I please
.’



Now look at what Jesus himself said about both himself and the Father in Matthew 24:36 concerning this below.

Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour (the day of his coming and the end of the age) no man knows, not the angels or the Son but the Father ONLY.


Notice, Jesus not only said he doesn't know it, but that ONLY the Father does and so this is not a matter of him limiting himself from his attributes, for indeed if he was truly God, he could held back from doing many things by his own powers as God, but this is different because he not only said he doesn't know but that ONLY The Father does know period.

So it isn't like having the power to heal and holding back from it, for in order for him not to know the end from the beginning, he would have had to be stricken with amnesia when becoming a man or something like it and which would mean that this attribute would have been totally removed from him when becoming a man.

There is no way around this for trins either.
That is what the kenosis theory is all about, trying to find a way to explain how Jesus can be God and reconcile it with the many things he says that make it sound as though he is not.

Its your assumption that attributes were removed when he became a man. You don't allow for other possibilities. IMO, you limit God like the pharisees did. Mark 12:24

Thank you for your thoughtful response.
 
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