Yes.
I answered this in post 1036 to you. "the form of God" is the man Christ Jesus.
I disagree with your explanation.
As I said "existing" in the form of God, means Christ Jesus is God in a human form.
Hebrews 1 supports this.
NRSV Hebrews 1: 1 Long ago God spoke to our ancestors in many and various ways by the prophets, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom he also created the worlds. 3 He is the reflection of God’s glory and the exact imprint of God’s very being, and he sustains all things by his powerful word. When he had made purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high...8 But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, and the righteous scepter is the scepter of your kingdom. 9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.”
I don't know what "huparchon" means. I need to see it in the greek or in the verse of scripture you are taking it from to look it up.
Yes, I understand, for the most part, what Trinitarians believe. I'm really not concerned with that in this thread nor whether they believe morphe applies to before or after the incarnation. I want to know what they believe about the kenosis theory. What does kenosis "emptying" mean to them. And if it's a limitation of the Son of God's divine attritibutes, how far does that limitation go. This is basically why I am in this thread. And that's why I didn't address Phil 2, it wasn't what I was interested in. And if Jesus is limiting his divine attributes, how do they explain the verses where Jesus grows in wisdom and has to be taught. I was drawn into this thread by the subject and Civic's explanation in the opening post. I'm not really interested in discussing the Biblical Unitarian view of this subject...sorry.