latreuō

Fred

Well-known member
A. In the New Testament latreuō is properly rendered unto God or improperly rendered unto idols.
1. BDAG (3rd Edition): in our literature only of the carrying out of religious duties, especially of a cultic nature, by human beings: λ. θεώ (latreuō, page 587).
2. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (TDNT): The ministry denoted by latreuein is always offered to God (or to heathen gods...R. 1:25...Ac. 7:42) (4:62, latreuō, H. Strathmann).
3. The Vocabulary of the Greek Testament: In Biblical Greek always refers to the service of the true God or of heathen deities (latreuō, page 371, James Hope Moulton and George Milligan).
4. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament: The verb latreuō is used of the worship of God (#Mt 4:10) as well as of idols as here (Acts 7:42)
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/acts-7.html

B. Since latreuō is properly due unto God alone (see above) the fact that the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of latreuō demonstrates He is God.
1. BDAG (3rd Edition): of one's relation to Christ...Revelation 22:3 (doulos, page 260).
2. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament: "Their" (autōn) means the wrath of God and of the Lamb put here on equality as in...22:3 (Revelation 6:17).
http://www.studylight.org/com/rwp/view.cgi?bk=65&ch=6
3. Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: to God and Christ ("the Lamb"), Revelation 22:3 (Serve, page 1021).

In addition to Revelation 22:3, see the link below for other places in the Bible which also teach the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of latreuō.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/the-lord-jesus-is-the-proper-recipient-of-latreu%C5%8D.9610/#post-698460
 
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A. In the New Testament latreuō is properly rendered unto God or improperly rendered unto idols.
1. BDAG (3rd Edition): in our literature only of the carrying out of religious duties, especially of a cultic nature, by human beings: λ. θεώ (latreuō, page 587).
2. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (TDNT): The ministry denoted by latreuein is always offered to God (or to heathen gods...R. 1:25...Ac. 7:42) (4:62, latreuō, H. Strathmann).
3. The Vocabulary of the Greek Testament: In Biblical Greek always refers to the service of the true God or of heathen deities (latreuō, page 371, James Hope Moulton and George Milligan).
4. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament: The verb latreuō is used of the worship of God (#Mt 4:10) as well as of idols as here (Acts 7:42)
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/acts-7.html

B. Since latreuō is properly due unto God alone (see above) the fact that the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of latreuō demonstrates He is God.
1. BDAG (3rd Edition): of one's relation to Christ...Revelation 22:3 (doulos, page 260).
2. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament: "Their" (autōn) means the wrath of God and of the Lamb put here on equality as in...22:3 (Revelation 6:17).
http://www.studylight.org/com/rwp/view.cgi?bk=65&ch=6
3. Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: to God and Christ ("the Lamb"), Revelation 22:3 (Serve, page 1021).

In addition to Revelation 22:3, see the link below for other places in the Bible which also teach the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of latreuō.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/the-lord-jesus-is-the-proper-recipient-of-latreu%C5%8D.9610/#post-698460
Stop spamming this forum with multiple threads on virtually the same topc. One thread alone is sufficient for all your points respecting the attributes of God being conferred on Christ at his ascension, to which is linked his resurrection and his exaltation. We don't need your endless one-dimensional propaganda, with which you have an unhealthy obsession. Everyone of us has read the bible multiple times. We do know what happened at Christ's ascension and the reasons for it, and we don't need you to tell us that Christ deserves praise.

What point of Greek is being raised here, if any?

Moreover I seem to recall you bringing up latreuo on other threads before. Why can't you restrict yourself to one thread?
 
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A. In the New Testament latreuō is properly rendered unto God or improperly rendered unto idols.
1. BDAG (3rd Edition): in our literature only of the carrying out of religious duties, especially of a cultic nature, by human beings: λ. θεώ (latreuō, page 587).
2. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (TDNT): The ministry denoted by latreuein is always offered to God (or to heathen gods...R. 1:25...Ac. 7:42) (4:62, latreuō, H. Strathmann).
3. The Vocabulary of the Greek Testament: In Biblical Greek always refers to the service of the true God or of heathen deities (latreuō, page 371, James Hope Moulton and George Milligan).
4. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament: The verb latreuō is used of the worship of God (#Mt 4:10) as well as of idols as here (Acts 7:42)
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/acts-7.html

B. Since latreuō is properly due unto God alone (see above) the fact that the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of latreuō demonstrates He is God.
1. BDAG (3rd Edition): of one's relation to Christ...Revelation 22:3 (doulos, page 260).
2. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament: "Their" (autōn) means the wrath of God and of the Lamb put here on equality as in...22:3 (Revelation 6:17).
http://www.studylight.org/com/rwp/view.cgi?bk=65&ch=6
3. Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: to God and Christ ("the Lamb"), Revelation 22:3 (Serve, page 1021).

In addition to Revelation 22:3, see the link below for other places in the Bible which also teach the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of latreuō.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/the-lord-jesus-is-the-proper-recipient-of-latreu%C5%8D.9610/#post-698460
In Rev. 22:3 only one individual (αὐτῷ)
is given λατρεύω, not both the Father and Jesus.

καὶ πᾶν κατάθεμα οὐκ ἔσται ἔτι. καὶ ὁ θρόνος τοῦ Θεοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἀρνίου ἐν αὐτῇ ἔσται, καὶ οἱ δοῦλοι αὐτοῦ λατρεύσουσιν αὐτῷ,

All you are doing is highlighting the poor foundation upon which the so-called “Deity” of Christ is based.
 
In Rev. 22:3 only one individual (αὐτῷ)
is given λατρεύω, not both the Father and Jesus.
Wrong.

Both are. See the OP.

Here's more:
1. Murray Harris: This verse could equally appropriately be listed under 'slaves of Christ', for the singulars 'his slaves' (hoi douloi autou) and 'him' (autō) could refer to 'the Lamb', the nearest antecedent. More probably, however, the reference is to both God and the Lamb, conceived of as forming an inviolate unity, just as in Rev. 11:15 the one kingdom belonging to 'our Lord' and 'his Christ', in Rev. 21:22 the one temple in the heavenly city is 'the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb', and in Rev. 22:1 the one throne belongs to 'God and the Lamb' (Slave of Christ: A New Testament Metaphor for Total Devotion to Christ, page 22, footnote 8).
2. G. K. Beale: That "they will serve him" likely does not refer only to God or only to the Lamb. The two are conceived so much as a unity that the singular pronoun can refer to both. This may find a parallel in 6:17b...possibly in reference to both God and the Lamb (see on 6:17; cf. also 11:15). That both are sitting on only one throne and together form one temple (21:22) enhances their perceived unity (The Book of Revelation, page 1113).
3. Robert L. Thomas: The singular pronoun autō capitalizes on the unity of the Father and the Son (cf. John 10:30). It is difficult to see this priestly service rendered to one of the two persons to the exclusion of the other (cf. 11:15) (Revelation 8-22: An Exegetical Commentary, page 486-487).
 
Wrong.

Both are. See the OP.

Here's more:
1. Murray Harris: This verse could equally appropriately be listed under 'slaves of Christ', for the singulars 'his slaves' (hoi douloi autou) and 'him' (autō) could refer to 'the Lamb', the nearest antecedent. More probably, however, the reference is to both God and the Lamb, conceived of as forming an inviolate unity, just as in Rev. 11:15 the one kingdom belonging to 'our Lord' and 'his Christ', in Rev. 21:22 the one temple in the heavenly city is 'the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb', and in Rev. 22:1 the one throne belongs to 'God and the Lamb' (Slave of Christ: A New Testament Metaphor for Total Devotion to Christ, page 22, footnote 8).
2. G. K. Beale: That "they will serve him" likely does not refer only to God or only to the Lamb. The two are conceived so much as a unity that the singular pronoun can refer to both. This may find a parallel in 6:17b...possibly in reference to both God and the Lamb (see on 6:17; cf. also 11:15). That both are sitting on only one throne and together form one temple (21:22) enhances their perceived unity (The Book of Revelation, page 1113).
3. Robert L. Thomas: The singular pronoun autō capitalizes on the unity of the Father and the Son (cf. John 10:30). It is difficult to see this priestly service rendered to one of the two persons to the exclusion of the other (cf. 11:15) (Revelation 8-22: An Exegetical Commentary, page 486-487).

Not according to the Greek grammar.
 
Not according to the Greek grammar.

1. "His servants" refers to both the Father (Revelation 7:3) and to the Lamb (Revelation 2:20).
2. "His face" refers to both the Father (Matthew 5:8) and to the Lamb (1 John 3:2).
3. "His name will be on their foreheads" refers to both the Father and the Lamb (Revelation 14:1).

If you don't want to include the Father, that is your choice. It doesn't detract from the Lord Jesus being the proper recipient of latreuō in Revelation 22:3.
 
1. "His servants" refers to both the Father (Revelation 7:3) and to the Lamb (Revelation 2:20).
2. "His face" refers to both the Father (Matthew 5:8) and to the Lamb (1 John 3:2).
3. "His name will be on their foreheads" refers to both the Father and the Lamb (Revelation 14:1).

If you don't want to include the Father, that is your choice. It doesn't detract from the Lord Jesus being the proper recipient of latreuō in Revelation 22:3.
Nonsense.
 
1. "His servants" refers to both the Father (Revelation 7:3) and to the Lamb (Revelation 2:20).
2. "His face" refers to both the Father (Matthew 5:8) and to the Lamb (1 John 3:2).
3. "His name will be on their foreheads" refers to both the Father and the Lamb (Revelation 14:1).

If you don't want to include the Father, that is your choice. It doesn't detract from the Lord Jesus being the proper recipient of latreuō in Revelation 22:3.
The NT theology is that the servants of God are the brothers of Christ.

Mar 3:35 "Whoever does God's will is my brother and sister and mother."
2Co 6:4 "Rather, as servants of God we commend ourselves in every way: in great endurance; in troubles, hardships and distresses;"
Rev 7:3 "Do not harm the land or the sea or the trees until we put a seal on the foreheads of the servants of our God."

Who is God?

Rev 21:22 "I did not see a temple in the city, because the Lord God Almighty AND the Lamb are its temple."

Here a double article is used, one before Lord God and one before the Lamb. Similarly in Rev 22:3.

God is not a lamb. God and the Lamb are distinct. "His servants" (δοῦλοι) must refer to the "servants of God." Likewise αὐτοῦ λατρεύσουσιν αὐτῷ refers to God.

So you are in error. λατρεύω infers God as primary referent. Honor of the Lamb is imputed by the doctrine of the Lamb being invested with the glory of God. Even if δοῦλοι is used once by Paul (Phil 1:1) in reference to imself being a servant of Christ, the primary allusion in Rev. must be to the Johannine distinction between a son and a servant e.g. Jhn 8:35 and to believers being brothers of the Lamb as servants of God.
 
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Thanks for bringing this up, because this also demonstrates that Christians are slaves of the Lord Jesus which means they worship Him.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/what-does-it-mean-to-be-a-slave-doulos-of-our-master-despot%C4%93s-jesus-christ.8928/


Concerning Revelation 22:3, when John uses a similar construction in Revelation 20:6 the nearest antecedent of the pronoun also refers to the Lord Jesus:
Revelation 22:3
the throne of God and of the Lamb will be in it, and His bond-servants will serve Him.
Revelation 20:6
they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with Him for a thousand years.

The "Him" of Revelation 20:6 refers to the Lord Jesus.
Revelation 20:4
they came to life and reigned with Christ for a thousand years.
 
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Thanks for bringing this up, because this also demonstrates that Christians are slaves of the Lord Jesus which means they worship Him.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/what-does-it-mean-to-be-a-slave-doulos-of-our-master-despot%C4%93s-jesus-christ.8928/


Concerning Revelation 22:3, when John uses a similar construction in Revelation 20:6 the nearest antecedent of the pronoun also refers to the Lord Jesus:
Revelation 22:3
the throne of God and of the Lamb will be in it, and His bond-servants will serve Him.
Revelation 20:6
they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with Him for a thousand years.

The "Him" of Revelation 20:6 refers to the Lord Jesus.
Revelation 20:4
they came to life and reigned with Christ for a thousand years.
We seek the primary denotation, not the "also" denotation. The Lamb always takes second place before God.

See Rev 5:10 "You have made them to be a kingdom and priests [to serve / unto] our God and they will reign on the earth.”

Your Sabellian view precludes you from a right exegesis. Whenever "God" is invoked, the Father is inferred as the primary referent: the lamb because his glory is of the Father.

Reigning with Christ doesn't infer being a bond-servant of Christ. As I said above, it infers being the brother of Christ, who is himself the servant of God. Acts 3:26,

Jn 4:23 "But a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and in truth, for the Father is seeking such as these to worship Him."
 
We seek the primary denotation, not the "also" denotation.

Which is your way of closing your eyes to Revelation 20:6 (cf. 4).

The Lamb always takes second place before God.

Even in Revelation 20:6 when it reads "priests of God and of Christ" the fact that they are priests of Christ demonstrate they worship Christ.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/invocation-worship-and-prayer.6643/page-5#post-552242

Jn 4:23 "But a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and in truth, for the Father is seeking such as these to worship Him."

See John 9:38.
 
Meaningless tosh. Since you don't accept Acts 3:26, your heresy remains.

I refuted enough of your garbage misunderstandings. I am not going to go through and correct all your madness.

You couldn't refute the evidence I supplied because it refutes your polytheistic heresy.
 
I refuted enough of your garbage misunderstandings. I am not going to go through and correct all your madness.

You couldn't refute the evidence I supplied because it refutes your polytheistic heresy.
You can't accept what the apostles themselves preach of Christ because your heresy doesn't permit it. Everything they say is garbage to you. The gospel you preach is not the apostolic gospel but the gospel of Sabellius and Noetus. You preach Christ as the Father. He isn't. It's that simple, and your allegation of polytheism shows you don't understand how Christ relates to God.
 
Reigning with Christ doesn't infer being a bond-servant of Christ.

And the hammer of Revelation 2:20 smashes the above to bits.

But I have this against you, that you tolerate the woman Jezebel, who calls herself a prophetess, and she teaches and leads My bond-servants astray so that they commit sexual immorality and eat things sacrificed to idols. (NASB)
 
And the hammer of Revelation 2:20 smashes the above to bits.
Wrong jurisdiction. Those reigning with Christ are pre-eminently in heaven.

Rev 22:5 "And there shall be no night there; and they need no candle, neither light of the sun; for the Lord God giveth them light: and they shall reign for ever and ever."

As is Rev 22:3.

You changed the context back to earth, when the whole of Rev 22 relates to heaven. So you're comparing apples and oranges.

Also note: 2 Timothy 2:12, Rev 20:6 where the idea of reigning with Christ is clearly denoted.
 
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