Paul is contrasting the 1st adam with the 2nd Adam and the effects both had upon all men and the one contrasted with the many. Also many can mean the most or an indeterminate or indefinite number.This is related to something another poster said about Hebrews 9:28, but I thought it deserved to be posted as its own thread.
I am going to demonstrate using Calvinist hermeneutics that only some men were made sinners by Adam's transgression.
Here is Romans 5:19: "For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man’s obedience many will be made righteous."
Notice that this verse says "many" were made sinners, not "all". If you doubt the implications, ask yourself: did Christ's obedience result in all men being made righteous, or only some? If you agree with the Bible that Christ's atonement was limited to the elect (I'm speaking as a Calvinist), then you must concede that, in order for Paul's analogy here to work, only some men were made sinners.
If you object to my claim that only some men were made sinners by Adam's transgression, how would you prove me wrong? You would go to other verses of Scripture that speak of Adam's transgression extending to ALL of the human race. And that's exactly what one should do...consider the full testimony of Scripture! But it is for this same reason that the Calvinist logic regarding limited atonement fails; although verses like Hebrews 9:28 use the word "many", there are other verses that use the word "all".
Even elsewhere in Hebrews we have such universal language: "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for everyone." (Heb. 2:9) Notice how it says that Christ might taste death for "everyone."
I'm reminded of Cosell's famous words :
" And down goes Frazier, down goes Frazier!"
So much for the OP that was easy.
hope this helps !!!