Now, to structure how I'm going to respond, I will present the following outline:
1) Some passages which teach "limited atonement" (or "particular redemption"), which Tom and others don't want you to know about;
2) The proof-texts which are LIMITED and QUALIFIED by a particular group, usually "us";
3) Proof-texts which refer to "the world"
4) Proof-texts which refer to "all [men]".
5) Various proof-texts.
Particular Redemption:
Matt. 1:21 She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus,
for he will save his people from their sins.”
John 10:11 I am the good shepherd.
The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep.
John 10:15 just as the Father knows me and I know the Father;
and I lay down my life for the sheep.
1Cor. 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received,
how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
Christ Died For All of "Us"
There are a number of passages which speak of Christ dying for "us", which is a PARTICULAR group. "US" is by definition NOT "universal", and not only was the Bible written to Christians ("us"), many of the passages which contrast the "us" with an exclusionary "them".
2Pet. 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. 9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Notice that Tom didn't even quote v.8, because he didn't want you to see the CONTEXT. This passage is about "the beloved" (v.8), and "us-ward" (v.9), meaning Christians, and is CONTRASTED with the "they" group of "scoffers" and "ungodly men" in vv. 3-7. For those interested, I've gone into greater detail concerning this passage,
here.
Other "proof-texts" Tom shared which mention an "us" group that he apparently didn't notice were:
Isa. 53:6 "...
And the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of US all."
1 Cor. 15:3 "...
Christ died for OUR sins according to the Scriptures."
2 Cor. 5:14 "...
the love of Christ constraineth US ...:
2 Cor. 5:18 "...
God, who hath reconciled. US to himself ...
Who is the "World"?
Many of Tom's "proof-texts" refer to Christ dying for "the world" (Greek, "kosmos"). And we're supposed to ASSUME that "world" means "every single individual", even though the term does not carry that meaning ANYWHERE in Scripture. First century Gentiles and Jews didn't think of people groups with the "precision" we do today. They didn't think so much in terms of "individuals", as they did in "groups". That's why when Paul was trying to point out that both Jews and Gentiles were sinners in Rom. 3, he had to say that there was NONE who did not sin, "no, NOT ONE" (Rom. 3:12).
The Jews had long been taught that "Salvation was of the Jews". The temple, rituals, and sacrifices, were only for the Jews, not the Gentiles. But part of the message of the gospel is that Gentiles have also been included, hence "world" (Jews + Gentiles).
To more closely study one passage, let's look at the most memorized verse in the Bible:
John 3:16
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Isn't it interesting that while it says "God ... loved the WORLD", it also says that only BELIEVERS will be saved. Do you really think that God lets someone end up in hell, but still "loves" them? (Nope, Ps. 5:5, Mal. 1:2-3, etc.) Imagine you're a father. You see your child playing in a busy street, and you "warn" them to get out of the street, but they don't heed your warning. Do you think that any father who didn't FORCEFULLY yank their child out of danger, but let them instead die, "Well, I warned him!", could be considered the least bit "loving"? Of course not.
I've written more comprehensively on the meaning of the world,
here.
So that takes care of John 3:14-16, John 4:42, John 6:33, John 12:47, 1 John 2:2, and 1 John 4:14.
Am I saying that you can't make an argument that "world" might mean everyone exhaustively? Not necessarily. But what I AM saying is that you have to do more than simply QUOTE VERSES, and tell them they HAVE to understand it that way.
Who Are "All [Men]"?
"All men" is understood much the same way as "the world". It's extending the SCOPE from "only the Jews", to "the Gentiles as well". The mistake, and I can understand it, is wanting to interpret "all men" as "all INDIVIDUALS", something it doesn't say. I believe it's more accurate to understand it as meaning "all groups/classes" of men. Case in point, let's look at this verse from Revelation:
Rev. 5:9 ...
for you were slain, and by your blood you ransomed people
for God from every tribe and language and people and nation,
Notice that the "every" (Greek, "pas", SAME word as "all") does NOT refer to the "individuals", but instead refers to the people GROUPS ("tribe, and language, and people, and nation").
So again, you can try to make a case that Scripture speaking of Christ dying for "all men" means unlimited atonement, but you would have to actually MAKE AN ARGUMENT, rather than simply assuming the meaning.
I've written more on the use of "all",
here.
So that takes care of John 1:7, 29, John 12:32, 1 Tim. 2:4, Heb. 2:9
Missing the Mark
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
While this doesn't have the word, "us" in the quoted passage, if you start reading from Rom. 5:1, we see that the CONTEXT is limited to those (1) who have been JUSTIFED, and (2) have been GIVEN the Holy Spirit. Ie. NOT "everyone". If you go through the text of Rom. 5:1-12 and highlight every instance of "
we", "us", or
"our", it becomes obvious that the context is limited.
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
This is a very interesting passage. Not only does "all men" not necessarily mean, "all individuals" but the Greek word translated as "specially", is the term, "malista", and can be used to mean, "specifically". And even the English term, "specially" means, "with a definite intent, specific person, etc. in mind". So I believe that this simply means God is the Saviour of all believers within all people groups.
Titus 2:11
For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
Notice that this doesn't say, "bringeth salvation to all men", it says, "hath appeared to all men". So regardless of what the extent of "all men" means, it doesn't say that salvation is for them, only that it's appeared. This is what happens when you simply do a "Bible search" and don't pay attention to the hits. Very sloppy.
2 Peter 2:1
But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.
This verse has been addressed in detail,
here
John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
And finally, this isn't even "universal". It's referring SPECIFICALLY to "that nation".