Literal, exact word for word translation in the KJV? No Consistency

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Unbound68

Well-known member
Heb 3:11
ὡς ὤμοσα ἐν τῇ ὀργῇ μου· Εἰ εἰσελεύσονται εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσίν μου
So I sware in my wrath, They shall not enter into my rest.

Heb 4:3
Ὡς ὤμοσα ἐν τῇ ὀργῇ μου Εἰ εἰσελεύσονται εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσίν μου
As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest:



Same exact words in Greek.
Same author.
Same context.
Two differing translations.

How do KJVOs explain this?
 
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Unbound68

Well-known member
The following pairs of verses from the synoptics use the same Greek words, but were translated differently:

Matt 4:6
concerning (peri)
Luke 4:10
over (peri)


Mark 1:17
come ye after (deute opiso)
Matt 4:19
follow (deute opiso)


Matt 17:19
apart (kata)
Mark 9:28
privately (kata)


Matt 10:22
he that endureth to the end shall be saved (ὁ δὲ ὑπομείναςεἰς τέλος οὗτος σωθήσεται)
Mark 13:13
he that shall endure the same shall be saved (ὁ δὲ ὑπομείναςεἰς τέλος οὗτος σωθήσεται)



Can KJVOs explain why the same Greek words in each pair of verses were translated differently by the KJV translators when the words in each pair of verses recount the same event in each Gospel?
 
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logos1560

Well-known member
Unbound68 said:
The following pairs of verses from the synoptics use the same Greek words, but were translated differently:

Mark 1:17
come ye after (deute opiso)
Matt 4:19
follow (deute opiso)
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The 1560 Geneva Bible has "follow" at Mark 1:17 as it also does at Matthew 4:19. The 1568 Bishops' Bible also has "follow" at both verses.
 
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RiJoRi

Well-known member
Unbound68 said:
Heb 3:11
ὡς ὤμοσα ἐν τῇ ὀργῇ μου· Εἰ εἰσελεύσονται εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσίν μου
So I sware in my wrath, They shall not enter into my rest.

Heb 4:3
Ὡς ὤμοσα ἐν τῇ ὀργῇ μου Εἰ εἰσελεύσονται εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσίν μου
As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest:

Same exact words in Greek.
Same author.
Same context.
Two differing translations.

How do KJVOs explain this?
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Dunno if the KJVO-ists can explain it, but the translators of the KJV did:
Reasons Inducing Us Not To Stand Curiously upon an Identity of Phrasing
Another thing we think good to admonish thee of (gentle Reader) that we have not tied ourselves to an uniformity of phrasing, or to an identity of words, as some peradventure would wish that we had done, because they observe, that some learned men somewhere, have been as exact as they could that way. Truly, that we might not vary from the sense of that which we had translated before, if the word signified the same thing in both places (for there be some words that be not of the same sense everywhere) we were especially careful, and made a conscience, according to our duty. But, that we should express the same notion in the same particular word; as for example, if we translate the Hebrew or Greek word once by Purpose, never to call it Intent; if one where Journeying, never Traveling; if one where Think, never Suppose; if one where Pain, never Ache; if one where Joy, never Gladness, etc. Thus to mince the matter, we thought to savour more of curiosity than wisdom, and that rather it would breed scorn in the Atheist, than bring profit to the godly Reader. For is the kingdom of God become words or syllables? why should we be in bondage to them if we may be free, use one precisely when we may use another no less fit, as commodiously?

--Rich
 
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Shoonra

Well-known member
I recall that many years ago (maybe 60 years ago) someone was advertising a Bible translation wherein the selling point was that every word in the original language would always get the same English rendering. No nuances or synonyms or alternate meanings, but the same English word would always be attached to the word in the original language. I never met anyone who bought that Bible.
 
Theo1689

Theo1689

Well-known member
Shoonra said:
I recall that many years ago (maybe 60 years ago) someone was advertising a Bible translation wherein the selling point was that every word in the original language would always get the same English rendering. No nuances or synonyms or alternate meanings, but the same English word would always be attached to the word in the original language. I never met anyone who bought that Bible.
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That would be a Bible written by someone ignorant of Greek.
Greek simply doesn't work that way.

"meta" can mean either "with" or "after", depending on the syntax.
"dia" can mean either "through", or "because of", depending on the syntext.
"de" can mean "and" or "but", dependingi on the context.

And that's just three examples.
 
Bob Carabbio

Bob Carabbio

Well-known member
Unbound68 said:
How do KJVOs explain this?
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Since "KJVO" is nothing but "Just another" religious fantasy, their "explanations" would mean nothing.

Personally I'm "KJVP". since I learned to read in the KJV back around 1946-47, I'm more comfortable with it than any other version, particularly when I need to look something up in a concordance. And I know many of the BAD TRANSLATION Workarounds - a few more every year.
 
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Unbound68

Well-known member
Truther said:
It is covered in my video.
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No it isn’t. So you’re telling me you specifically addressed what I wrote in the first two posts in this thread?

Why are you afraid to deal with the specific examples in this thread and the two others I tagged you in that prove the KJV isn’t “perfect?”

Is your position so weak that you can’t provide a written defense?

I’m not interested in a debate with a video. I want to see your defense in your own words.
 
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Truther

Truther

Well-known member
Unbound68 said:
No it isn’t. So you’re telling me you specifically addressed what I wrote in the first two posts in this thread?

Why are you afraid to deal with the specific examples in this thread and the two others I tagged you in that prove the KJV isn’t “perfect?”

Is your position so weak that you can’t provide a written defense?

I’m not interested in a debate with a video. I want to see your defense in your own words.
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No, I only posted the video for you guys to pick apart.

They did all the homework for you to argue about.

You guys just gripe about it.
 
Truther

Truther

Well-known member
logos1560 said:
You merely demonstrate that you are somewhat uninformed or misinformed if you think that this misleading video "did all the homework."
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Did you watch the video with your eyes closed and fingers in your ears saying “lalala”?
 
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