You again present mere unsupported opinion without evidence to back it up. The Old Latin translations put in the Western family are known for having a number of additions as well as some omissions. Would you suggest the Byzantine text has some of the same additions as the Old Latin has?
Relatively minor, compared to the two sections, and these phrases that were in some Old Latin were generally fixed in the Vulgate text of 400 AD by Jerome. Which gives us most of the c. 10,000 Latin mss.
What about the 24 verses of the Mark ending and the Pericope Adulterae?
Do you have any idea whether they are scripture?