MV’s are changing God’s word on who’s authority ? ?

Leatherneck0311

Well-known member
John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts diminishes who Jesus actually is and His position. Satan did the very same in the garden of Eden when he said to Eve “has God said”.
 

glenlogie

Well-known member
John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts diminishes who Jesus actually is and His position. Satan did the very same in the garden of Eden when he said to Eve “has God said”.
One more thing. The word "the" is singular. One father. The word "my" can imply plural father. My father and your father. Can be more than one. The word "the" is a stronger choice.
 

CrowCross

Well-known member
John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts diminishes who Jesus actually is and His position. Satan did the very same in the garden of Eden when he said to Eve “has God said”.
I've noticed in the KJV the word my is italic. Does anyone know why?
 

Leatherneck0311

Well-known member
I've noticed in the KJV the word my is italic. Does anyone know why?
It would have read I and Father are one my is added so it is italicized my was added for clarity. If you go to John 10:32 you will see Jesus say“my Father” with “my”not italicized.
 
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imJRR

Active member
John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts diminishes who Jesus actually is and His position. Satan did the very same in the garden of Eden when he said to Eve “has God said”.

NOTE: Leatherneck has me on 'ignore' due to my refuting him on Acts 20:28. Please refer this to him.


Leatherneck, you are openly doing the exact same thing that a non-Christian cultist does here - You are isolating a verse from its context in order to foist a lie. Here is the proof of that: John 10:25-30 says:

"The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”

Jesus uses the words "My Father" THREE TIMES in those preceding verses.

And you want to assert the idea that, "the Father" is not necessarily the same as "My Father"??

What - You think Jesus just might be talking about SOMEONE ELSE???

What a TOTALLY FOOLISH, TOTALLY DESPICABLE way to handle Scripture!
 
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CrowCross

Well-known member
John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts diminishes who Jesus actually is and His position. Satan did the very same in the garden of Eden when he said to Eve “has God said”.
I don't have a problem with my or the...The word used is...3588. ho, hé, to.

I honestly don't see the use of the word as equivalent with what Satan did in the garden.
 

CrowCross

Well-known member
My shows Jesus’ position to the Father while the the does not. I actually like I and Father are one better than either but the the breaks the relationship IMO.
Both statements are true.

It's like the ending of the Lords prayer....the RCC omitts the ending. For thine is the kingdom, power and glory forever, Amen....is a true statement.
 

e v e

Super Member
John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts diminishes who Jesus actually is and His position. Satan did the very same in the garden of Eden when he said to Eve “has God said”.
i liked your post because there is much mistranslation, alteration, omission and i believe it was intentional in many cases. your post brings out that problem.

example, all bibles before 1885, 136 years ago only, included the apocrypha. now: removed by unknown not named scholars.
 

Leatherneck0311

Well-known member
i liked your post because there is much mistranslation, alteration, omission and i believe it was intentional in many cases. your post brings out that problem.

example, all the bibles befor 1885, 136 years ago only, included the apocrypha. now: removed by unknown not named scholars.
I believe Jesus quoted from the Ot we currently have and never quoted from the apocrypha.
 

e v e

Super Member
It cast doubt on God’s word .My shows relationship and position ,and the diminishes both relationship and position.
i like how you thought this out.

much impersonalization happens by scholars who cannot hear Him and think language is neutral.

His words are never signatureless or neutral.
 

e v e

Super Member
I believe Jesus quoted from the Ot we currently have and never quoted from the apocrypha.
still, it was removed.

i see that in 80ad pharisees removed it, after christ, removed it from hebrew scripture. then soon after rome also. then luther said maybe 7 books were unsure but even he did not remove them. he was unsure.

then in 1885, suddenly it was removed. who by? no info. publishers said a smaller book was easier to print.
 

Leatherneck0311

Well-known member
Both statements are true.

It's like the ending of the Lords prayer....the RCC omitts the ending. For thine is the kingdom, power and glory forever, Amen....is a true statement.
I see it as one statement as true while the other breaks Jesus’ position to the Father, and the RCC’s change to the Lord’s prayer violates God’s command to not add or remove from HIS word.
 

e v e

Super Member
I believe Jesus quoted from the Ot we currently have and never quoted from the apocrypha.
yes but the scripture he would have seen and looked at included it.

and i’m not saying there are not errors in it or that it was inspired. i’m saying that modern reasoning about scripture is uninspired.
 
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