You failed to prove your allegation to be true. Perhaps the Textus Receptus has a definite article in Greek, which would also explain why the KJV has the "my" in italics. You fail to prove that modern versions are mistranslating what is in the Greek at John 10:30.John 10:30 Jesus said,”I and myFather are one”. Most MV’s say “ I and the Father are one”. The Father is not necessarily my Father, and to change the wording based on the corrupted minority texts
"My" at John 10:30 is not in a different type or in italics in the 1611 edition so it was later editions that put it in italics.