Nouns uses as objects of Prepositions

Alexander the adequate

Well-known member
In Revelation chapter 1 the first two verses have in English "of Jesus"
Looking at the Greek, there does not appear to be a preposition.
In as simple language as possible, explain why His name is represented as the object of a proposition
 

John Milton

Well-known member
In Revelation chapter 1 the first two verses have in English "of Jesus"
Looking at the Greek, there does not appear to be a preposition.
In as simple language as possible, explain why His name is represented as the object of a proposition
Greek has different cases that are able to convey certain ideas without the need for a preposition. In Rev. 1:1 the text begins "Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ," Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ serves to tell what the Revelation (Ἀποκάλυψις) is about. The chart below should give you some idea of the options that are available for the genitive case. Let me know if this wasn't clear or simple enough, and I'll try again. I hope this helped.
 

Alexander the adequate

Well-known member
Greek has different cases that are able to convey certain ideas without the need for a preposition. In Rev. 1:1 the text begins "Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ," Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ serves to tell what the Revelation (Ἀποκάλυψις) is about. The chart below should give you some idea of the options that are available for the genitive case. Let me know if this wasn't clear or simple enough, and I'll try again. I hope this helped.
thanks
Does the spelling of the noun change, like with a different ending to make it objective. In the text I looked at, it looked like Jesus was spelled the same whether it as a subject or object. If so is it the sentence that determines the case as opposed to a noun ending?
 

John Milton

Well-known member
thanks
Does the spelling of the noun change, like with a different ending to make it objective. In the text I looked at, it looked like Jesus was spelled the same whether it as a subject or object. If so is it the sentence that determines the case as opposed to a noun ending?
Generally, the spelling for each case is distinct, but there are some exceptions. Names sometimes fall into the latter category. In the New Testament, Jesus's name is spelled the same in the dative, genitive, and vocative, but differently in the nominative and accusative. I don't recall off-hand if there are any spellings that the chart below doesn't cover.
NominativeἸησοῦς
GenitiveἸησοῦ
Dative
Ἰησοῦ
AccusativeἸησοῦν
VocativeἸησοῦ
 

Alexander the adequate

Well-known member
Generally, the spelling for each case is distinct, but there are some exceptions. Names sometimes fall into the latter category. In the New Testament, Jesus's name is spelled the same in the dative, genitive, and vocative, but differently in the nominative and accusative. I don't recall off-hand if there are any spellings that the chart below doesn't cover.
NominativeἸησοῦς
GenitiveἸησοῦ
Dative
Ἰησοῦ
AccusativeἸησοῦν
VocativeἸησοῦ
Thanks again, Maybe the blue letter Bible online help does not render the Greek properly?
In Rev1 verse 1 and 2, there is in English the phrase "of Jesus" but in the Bible helps it shows the word being in the nominative case.
And as I said earlier, nothing in Greek calling for the English word "of"
So the question may be better stated Why is the English "of Jesus" when there is no preposition in Greek and the case is nominative?
 
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John Milton

Well-known member
Thanks again, Maybe the blue letter Bible online help does not render the Greek properly?
In Rev1 verse 1 and 2, there is in English the phrase "of Jesus" but in the Bible helps it shows the word being in the nominative case.
And as I said earlier, nothing in Greek calling for the English word "of"
So the question may be better stated Why is the English "of Jesus" when there is no preposition in Greek and the case is nominative?
If you'll give me a link to what you see, I'll take a look at it. From what I can see, it gives what the text has as well as the nominative form which is the form of the word you need to look up the word in a dictionary.
 

Alexander the adequate

Well-known member
If you'll give me a link to what you see, I'll take a look at it. From what I can see, it gives what the text has as well as the nominative form which is the form of the word you need to look up the word in a dictionary.
I cannot provide the link. But I will just try to clarify. In the New American Standard and probably others, Revelation chapter 1, both of the first two verses have in English "of Jesus" But when the software lists the Greek words, in both cases the form of "Jesus" is nominative and there are no Greek words from which the word "of" is directly translated. You can see that anywhere that you have access to a Greek text.
My question is why in English do they make it the object of a preposition, if in the Greek there is no preposition and the case of Jesus is nominative?
 

John Milton

Well-known member
I cannot provide the link. But I will just try to clarify. In the New American Standard and probably others, Revelation chapter 1, both of the first two verses have in English "of Jesus" But when the software lists the Greek words, in both cases the form of "Jesus" is nominative and there are no Greek words from which the word "of" is directly translated. You can see that anywhere that you have access to a Greek text.
My question is why in English do they make it the object of a preposition, if in the Greek there is no preposition and the case of Jesus is nominative?
All the Greek texts are going to read something like the following:
1 Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἣν ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ θεὸς δεῖξαι τοῖς δούλοις αὐτοῦ ἃ δεῖ γενέσθαι ἐν τάχει, καὶ ἐσήμανεν ἀποστείλας διὰ τοῦ ἀγγέλου αὐτοῦ τῷ δούλῳ αὐτοῦ Ἰωάννῃ, 2 ὃς ἐμαρτύρησεν τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τὴν μαρτυρίαν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ὅσα εἶδεν.

In the Greek texts the words are in the genitive case, not the nominative. I can only assume, since I cannot see what you are looking at, that your source is giving the translation of these terms along with the nominative case which is the case you would use to look up the word in a dictionary.
 

Alexander the adequate

Well-known member
All the Greek texts are going to read something like the following:
1 Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἣν ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ θεὸς δεῖξαι τοῖς δούλοις αὐτοῦ ἃ δεῖ γενέσθαι ἐν τάχει, καὶ ἐσήμανεν ἀποστείλας διὰ τοῦ ἀγγέλου αὐτοῦ τῷ δούλῳ αὐτοῦ Ἰωάννῃ, 2 ὃς ἐμαρτύρησεν τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τὴν μαρτυρίαν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ὅσα εἶδεν.

In the Greek texts the words are in the genitive case, not the nominative. I can only assume, since I cannot see what you are looking at, that your source is giving the translation of these terms along with the nominative case which is the case you would use to look up the word in a dictionary.
Ah, thankyou. That helps. Knowing it is genitive and that it does not need a preposition.
We are beginning an informal study of Revelation, not very in depth, but this is good to know
 
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