Oneness Please Explain Your Doctrine Of The "INCARNATION"

Truther

Well-known member
24 God(Jesus) is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

Is this what Jesus meant?

You teach Jesus was God as flesh.

You think this, but refuse to admit it.
 

101G

Active member
Fact is, God is a Spirit only...not flesh.

Is Jesus(son of man), God as flesh?
GINOLJC, to all.
oh how foolish are they, let me ask you this, "is there a spirit in the the body of flesh that is called you?"

and Jesus, the Son of man is the "spirit" that is in that body of Flesh and blood..... BINGO.
Jesus said...

24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.


Who is the "him"?

Jesus?

Or, someone other than Jesus?
understand the HIM, and the he, listen, Isaiah 53:1 "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?"
Isaiah 53:2 "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him."

now, who is the "he", and the "him?" answer, JESUS, who is LORD, and Lord..... the same one person. what you do not understand is this, God is the "ECHAD" of himself in flesh. the Otdinal First, JESUS, Spirit/ title Father, who is LORD. JESUS the Man, his own IMAGE, spirit/title Son, Lord.

the same one person only in diversity, or in the ECHAD, now ... Glorified, (John 17:5), in the amalgamation of all in all, (1 Corinthians 12:6), with ALL POWER.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

Truther

Well-known member
GINOLJC, to all.
oh how foolish are they, let me ask you this, "is there a spirit in the the body of flesh that is called you?"

and Jesus, the Son of man is the "spirit" that is in that body of Flesh and blood..... BINGO.

understand the HIM, and the he, listen, Isaiah 53:1 "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?"
Isaiah 53:2 "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him."

now, who is the "he", and the "him?" answer, JESUS, who is LORD, and Lord..... the same one person. what you do not understand is this, God is the "ECHAD" of himself in flesh. the Otdinal First, JESUS, Spirit/ title Father, who is LORD. JESUS the Man, his own IMAGE, spirit/title Son, Lord.

the same one person only in diversity, or in the ECHAD, now ... Glorified, (John 17:5), in the amalgamation of all in all, (1 Corinthians 12:6), with ALL POWER.

PICJAG, 101G.
"Him" is "me", according to Jesus?(John 4:24)

Why didn't Jesus just come out and say it?

Was Jesus afraid the woman would stone him or something?

or, was Jesus actually speaking of someone other than himself?
 

101G

Active member
"Him" is "me", according to Jesus?(John 4:24)

Why didn't Jesus just come out and say it?

Was Jesus afraid the woman would stone him or something?

or, was Jesus actually speaking of someone other than himself?
GONOLJC, to all
ONE LITTLE SIMPLE VERSE, John 8:24 "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins." because you don't "BELIEVE"

who is the "he" Truther? his "OWN ARM... "HIM", listen, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me."

he is NIM the "ECHAD" of HIMself in flesh. or the Root, "Spirit", (Genesis 1:1) and Offspring, another of himself diversified in "FLESH", (John 1:1.

there he is "HIM" he told us already before he came. Isaiah 52:6 "Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I."

I AM ..... "HE?".... John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." yes, the ROOT, the ECHAD, the ordinal First, title Father, LORD. in flesh, John 13:13 "Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.", the OFFSPRING, the ECHAD, the ordinal Last, title Son, Lord.

Oh yes the Root, Father, LORD and the Offspring, Son Lord...... now LISTEN, Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star."

ROOT before David, "Spirit", LORD, Father, Genesis 1:1....... OFFSPRING After David, "spirit, Flesh and Blood, as a man", Lord, Son, John 1:1.

This is too easy not to UNDERSTANG, a cjhild can understand this..




SUMMARY: the ARM of "GOD", (HIM), is "he", the same ONE "JESUS". listen, Isaiah 53:1 "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?"
Isaiah 53:2 "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him."

now let bring this over to the NEW TESTAMENT.

Revelation 22:16, ROOT, (GOD), "Spirit", per John 4:24a. title rank, Father, LORD...... "HIM"
OFFSPRING, (GOD), diversified in "Flesh and Bones as a man", per John 1:1, title and rank, Son, Lord. "HE" BINGO,
"HE" shall grow, (son of God, flesh and blood), before"HIM" (the Spirit), in Wisdom and in stature.

this is too easy....... we suggest you copy and paste this post for futher study.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

Truther

Well-known member
GONOLJC, to all
ONE LITTLE SIMPLE VERSE, John 8:24 "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins." because you don't "BELIEVE"

who is the "he" Truther? his "OWN ARM... "HIM", listen, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me."

he is NIM the "ECHAD" of HIMself in flesh. or the Root, "Spirit", (Genesis 1:1) and Offspring, another of himself diversified in "FLESH", (John 1:1.

there he is "HIM" he told us already before he came. Isaiah 52:6 "Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I."

I AM ..... "HE?".... John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." yes, the ROOT, the ECHAD, the ordinal First, title Father, LORD. in flesh, John 13:13 "Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.", the OFFSPRING, the ECHAD, the ordinal Last, title Son, Lord.

Oh yes the Root, Father, LORD and the Offspring, Son Lord...... now LISTEN, Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star."

ROOT before David, "Spirit", LORD, Father, Genesis 1:1....... OFFSPRING After David, "spirit, Flesh and Blood, as a man", Lord, Son, John 1:1.

This is too easy not to UNDERSTANG, a cjhild can understand this..




SUMMARY: the ARM of "GOD", (HIM), is "he", the same ONE "JESUS". listen, Isaiah 53:1 "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?"
Isaiah 53:2 "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him."

now let bring this over to the NEW TESTAMENT.

Revelation 22:16, ROOT, (GOD), "Spirit", per John 4:24a. title rank, Father, LORD...... "HIM"
OFFSPRING, (GOD), diversified in "Flesh and Bones as a man", per John 1:1, title and rank, Son, Lord. "HE" BINGO,
"HE" shall grow, (son of God, flesh and blood), before"HIM" (the Spirit), in Wisdom and in stature.

this is too easy....... we suggest you copy and paste this post for futher study.

PICJAG, 101G.
Oh, I see now.

You made Jesus in another verse saying "I am he"(last Adam/prophesied messiah/son of man/son of God)...into "I am he" (God).

Only one problem...it debunks John 4:24.

It also debunks this....

And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

You have a bad habit of inserting meanings which debunk Jesus.
 

101G

Active member
Oh, I see now.

You made Jesus in another verse saying "I am he"(last Adam/prophesied messiah/son of man/son of God)...into "I am he" (God).

Only one problem...it debunks John 4:24.
Nope, YOU don't see, nor understand, I have made the Lord JESUS just what he is according to the bible. he the EQUAL SHARE of his ... "OWNSELF"

what you cannot ... "SEE" ... or understand is the term ANOTHER in G243 Allos, and not G2087 heteros. as we been saying go back and LEARN the Difference in G243 Allos, and G2087 heteros, which both means "ANOTHER", but wit different meaning of being "Another".
And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.
did the Lord Jesus say he was "BAD" or Evil? and did you see how he said that? none is good, save one, that is, God, now, John 14:1 "Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me." if he was not God and not "GOOD", why believe in him? becaue if the ONLY ONE is Good is God, well why believe in him then? .... yea ... right...... :) ....:cool:

ou have a bad habit of inserting meanings which debunk Jesus.
seems like God do too, John 14:9 "Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?"
now Truther, do you believe that? ........ (smile), ...... lol, lol, lol. can you say yes "I believe". ..... lol.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

aeg4971

Active member
Was God in Christ or Himself?

If Christ was the 2nd person was God(someone other than Christ) in the 2nd person(Christ)?

Did 2 Cor 5:19 REALLY MEAN something like God inside God, reconciling the world unto God....?

Or, did this interpretation evolve over the centuries?
I answer that Christ is the 2nd person because He is God the Father( 1st person) own Word Himself proceeding in the likeness of sinful flesh. Furthermore the Word Himself was made flesh by taking upon Himself the form of a servant. It follows God was in this particular man by way of hypostasis, of which no other man can claim divine subsistence save for the Son. Hence the Son is God because the Father is God ,flesh and blood aside, it really is that simple, and this is by reason of God supreme simplicity.

Hope that helps....... Alan
 

aeg4971

Active member
Oh, I see now.

You made Jesus in another verse saying "I am he"(last Adam/prophesied messiah/son of man/son of God)...into "I am he" (God).

Only one problem...it debunks John 4:24.

It also debunks this....

And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

You have a bad habit of inserting meanings which debunk Jesus.
Well Jesus was a man. God manifested in the flesh , Hence the Son is numerically distinct therefrom the Father ,and at once numerically indivisibly united to God the Father". It follows that the Son is united by atemporal and immaterial birth ,whereas we are united by adoption and partaking of the divine nature. Therefore then this man the Christ did not partake of the divine nature as you and I ,but rather the hypostatic Word Himself took upon Himself this flesh these bones and this blood.

I can't find one scripture that would change the scriptures that are quite clear on the fact that; a body hath thou prepared for the consubstantial Word Himself to subsist in it( ie Hypostatic Union/ Incarnation), and we beheld His glory as of the only begotten of the Father full of grace and truth.

Btw: the distinction between the Father and the Son is the same as the distinction between God and His Word(ie begotten/conceived Wisdom), and NOT between spirit and flesh, as you Oneness erroneously and ignorantly assert.

....... Alan
 
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Truther

Well-known member
Nope, YOU don't see, nor understand, I have made the Lord JESUS just what he is according to the bible. he the EQUAL SHARE of his ... "OWNSELF"

what you cannot ... "SEE" ... or understand is the term ANOTHER in G243 Allos, and not G2087 heteros. as we been saying go back and LEARN the Difference in G243 Allos, and G2087 heteros, which both means "ANOTHER", but wit different meaning of being "Another".

did the Lord Jesus say he was "BAD" or Evil? and did you see how he said that? none is good, save one, that is, God, now, John 14:1 "Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me." if he was not God and not "GOOD", why believe in him? becaue if the ONLY ONE is Good is God, well why believe in him then? .... yea ... right...... :) ....:cool:


seems like God do too, John 14:9 "Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?"
now Truther, do you believe that? ........ (smile), ...... lol, lol, lol. can you say yes "I believe". ..... lol.

PICJAG, 101G.
You must really explain this.....

And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

Was he saying he is God(and good)?

If so, underline it.

Thanks.
 

Truther

Well-known member
I answer that Christ is the 2nd person because He is God the Father( 1st person) own Word Himself proceeding in the likeness of sinful flesh. Furthermore the Word Himself was made flesh by taking upon Himself the form of a servant. It follows God was in this particular man by way of hypostasis, of which no other man can claim divine subsistence save for the Son. Hence the Son is God because the Father is God ,flesh and blood aside, it really is that simple, and this is by reason of God supreme simplicity.

Hope that helps....... Alan
Alan, so you teach God was in God reconciling the world to himself per 2 Cor 5:19?
 

Truther

Well-known member
Well Jesus was a man. God manifested in the flesh , Hence the Son is numerically distinct therefrom the Father ,and at once numerically indivisibly united to God the Father". It follows that the Son is united by atemporal and immaterial birth ,whereas we are united by adoption and partaking of the divine nature. Therefore then this man the Christ did not partake of the divine nature as you and I ,but rather the hypostatic Word Himself took upon Himself this flesh these bones and this blood.

I can't find one scripture that would change the scriptures that are quite clear on the fact that; a body hath thou prepared for the consubstantial Word Himself to subsist in it( ie Hypostatic Union/ Incarnation), and we beheld His glory as of the only begotten of the Father full of grace and truth.

Btw: the distinction between the Father and the Son is the same as the distinction between God and His Word(ie begotten/conceived Wisdom), and NOT between spirit and flesh, as you Oneness erroneously and ignorantly assert.

....... Alan
Was God manifested INTO flesh or was God manifested IN THE flesh of another individual person called Jesus?

Was the invisible God seen AS Jesus or through Jesus?
 

101G

Active member
You must really explain this.....

And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

Was he saying he is God(and good)?

If so, underline it.

Thanks.
sure, John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;"
John 14:17 "Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you."
John 14:18 "I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you."

the "Spirit" of TRUTH. is TRUTH "GOOD?"... (smile), thought so. and is is there only ONE "Spirit". lets see, Romans 8:9 "But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his."

yes, that's JESUS, who is A. "GOOD", and B. the ONLY "ONE Spirit.

so the scripture is correct, "And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God",
yes, that's him.... God in Flesh.

NEXT.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

Truther

Well-known member
sure, John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;"
John 14:17 "Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you."
John 14:18 "I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you."

the "Spirit" of TRUTH. is TRUTH "GOOD?"... (smile), thought so. and is is there only ONE "Spirit". lets see, Romans 8:9 "But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his."

yes, that's JESUS, who is A. "GOOD", and B. the ONLY "ONE Spirit.

so the scripture is correct, "And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God",
yes, that's him.... God in Flesh.

NEXT.

PICJAG, 101G.
So, Jesus INADVERTENTLY said "I am good, and I am God" to the man?....


And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.


The man interpreted it that way?

Or, was this a parable?


If someone tells you "only God is good", do you say to them, "no you are good and you are like God"?

See how you debunk Jesus in the verse?
 

101G

Active member
So, Jesus INADVERTENTLY said "I am good, and I am God" to the man?....
yelp! .....not INADVERTENTLY, but confidently understand, "WHY CALL ME GOOD", was he not already Good? but he, the man, didn;t know just like you, DO NOT KNOW?. .... :p

Listen, lets get educated, "Master" Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
did the man who ask the Lord Jesus know that he was the "MASTER?", apparently ..... NOT, for the term "Lord" as MASTER is,
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.

and this same "MASTER"/Lord in verse 5 of Psalms110 is,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).

[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

well Truther, do you understand NOW? see, the Lord Jesus just told the man that he is GOD. oh the so many was he reveal himself, but only to his are he known. the proverb is correct, Proverbs 14:12 "There is a way which seemeth right unto a man, but the end thereof are the ways of death."

see T, the Lord Jesus just told the man he is the "ONE" God, for the man as well as other didn't know. for they was ignorant of the scriptures, as are many today, but this is why we're here. ... to imform you..

listen, Matthew 22:41 "While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them," Matthew 22:42 "Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David." Matthew 22:43 "He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying," Matthew 22:44 "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? "Matthew 22:45 "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" Matthew 22:46 "And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions."

see T, you don't know TODAY, how is he, JESUS, who is Lord, is son........ but I'm here to help you .... "ECHAD"........

now, we suggest you re-read this post for complete clarification
PICJAG, 101G.
 

Truther

Well-known member
yelp! .....not INADVERTENTLY, but confidently understand, "WHY CALL ME GOOD", was he not already Good? but he, the man, didn;t know just like you, DO NOT KNOW?. .... :p

Listen, lets get educated, "Master" Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
did the man who ask the Lord Jesus know that he was the "MASTER?", apparently ..... NOT, for the term "Lord" as MASTER is,
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.

and this same "MASTER"/Lord in verse 5 of Psalms110 is,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).

[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

well Truther, do you understand NOW? see, the Lord Jesus just told the man that he is GOD. oh the so many was he reveal himself, but only to his are he known. the proverb is correct, Proverbs 14:12 "There is a way which seemeth right unto a man, but the end thereof are the ways of death."

see T, the Lord Jesus just told the man he is the "ONE" God, for the man as well as other didn't know. for they was ignorant of the scriptures, as are many today, but this is why we're here. ... to imform you..

listen, Matthew 22:41 "While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them," Matthew 22:42 "Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David." Matthew 22:43 "He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying," Matthew 22:44 "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? "Matthew 22:45 "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" Matthew 22:46 "And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions."

see T, you don't know TODAY, how is he, JESUS, who is Lord, is son........ but I'm here to help you .... "ECHAD"........

now, we suggest you re-read this post for complete clarification
PICJAG, 101G.
And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

Really meant this?...

And Jesus said unto him, Why NOT callest thou me good? I AM good, AS I AM one, that is, MYSELF....God.
 

101G

Active member
And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

Really meant this?...

And Jesus said unto him, Why NOT callest thou me good? I AM good, AS I AM one, that is, MYSELF....God.
Matthew 13:10 "And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?" Matthew 13:11 "He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given."

Matthew 13:12 "For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath."

Matthew 13:13 "Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand."

Matthew 13:14 "And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:" BINGO, that's from Isaiah 6:9.

Matthew 13:15 "For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them."
BINGO, again from Isaiah 53:3.

Matthew 13:16 "But blessed are your eyes, for they see: and your ears, for they hear."

Matthew 13:17 "For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous men have desired to see those things which ye see, and have not seen them; and to hear those things which ye hear, and have not heard them."

and the Holy Ghost again, (JESUS), puts it plain, 2 Timothy 3:7 "Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth.".

NOW DO YOU UNDERSTAND? ............................................................ NO.......... :cool:

PICJAG, 101G.
 

aeg4971

Active member
So, God was His own so
metaphorically speaking, YES, the EQUAL SHARE in the "ECHAD"... :cool:

just as Paul, begot Timothy as his ... "OWN" son, listen.... 1 Timothy 1:2 "Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God our Father and Jesus Christ our Lord."

or as the apostle begot these, 1 Corinthians 4:15 "For though ye have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel."

so your ignorance shows. you think the the only way to "beget" soneone is through "SEX"... oh how follish is that thinking. this is what the bible say is the NATURAL MAN THINKING, 1 Corinthians 2:13 "Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual."
1 Corinthians 2:14 "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned."

2 Timothy 3:7 "Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth."

PICJAG, 101G.
So, the son posed as the Father or the Father posed as the son?

Of course not Truther !! That is like asking ," Is God His own Father". Or "Is God posing as the Father ". Your questions suggest that you like 101G already start from" The Father and the Son are two individual beings; one divine -the Father and another one is human- the Son" One is spirit- the Father and another one is flesh- the Son". "God the Elohim- the Father and god jr 2nd place elohim- the Son" That is polytheism qualified by Unitarian lip service of monotheism.

It is said that "The Son is AT the right hand of the Father" wherefore it is also said that," The Son IS the right hand of the Father" . However you render the above; nevertheless we can only see the Father by the Son, likewise we can only see the Son by the Father.

so your ignorance shows. you think the the only way to "beget" soneone is through "SEX"... oh how follish is that thinking. this is what the bible say is the NATURAL MAN THINKING, 1 Corinthians 2:13 "Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual."101G

No more foolish than asserting," The Son pre existed in God mind until being born by utterance into flesh ".

According to St John Prologue ,We find divine conception then in first principle; to be the atemporal procession of the Logos in God which is likewise substantial ,hence rightly called generation ;and the Word Himself proceeding is properly called begotten and Son.

It follows God does not " Equally share in one nature" with a creature "for there can be no touching Him" but rather God " Equally share in one nature" by " Extending hypostasis to another " wherefore then who took upon Himself the creature to become obedient unto death to the glory of God the Father.

Lastly to erroneously assert" Equally share in flesh "or "the fully indwelling spirit" still can only be by way of extending hypostasis.


........ Alan
 
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Truther

Well-known member
Matthew 13:10 "And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?" Matthew 13:11 "He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given."

Matthew 13:12 "For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath."

Matthew 13:13 "Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand."

Matthew 13:14 "And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:" BINGO, that's from Isaiah 6:9.

Matthew 13:15 "For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them."
BINGO, again from Isaiah 53:3.

Matthew 13:16 "But blessed are your eyes, for they see: and your ears, for they hear."

Matthew 13:17 "For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous men have desired to see those things which ye see, and have not seen them; and to hear those things which ye hear, and have not heard them."

and the Holy Ghost again, (JESUS), puts it plain, 2 Timothy 3:7 "Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth.".

NOW DO YOU UNDERSTAND? ............................................................ NO.......... :cool:

PICJAG, 101G.
"Why callest thou ME good?"..."none is good"..."only God is good".

You just rebuked Jesus by denying his literal words.

The ruler was smarter than that, fella.
 

Truther

Well-known member
metaphorically speaking, YES, the EQUAL SHARE in the "ECHAD"... :cool:

just as Paul, begot Timothy as his ... "OWN" son, listen.... 1 Timothy 1:2 "Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God our Father and Jesus Christ our Lord."

or as the apostle begot these, 1 Corinthians 4:15 "For though ye have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel."

so your ignorance shows. you think the the only way to "beget" soneone is through "SEX"... oh how follish is that thinking. this is what the bible say is the NATURAL MAN THINKING, 1 Corinthians 2:13 "Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual."
1 Corinthians 2:14 "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned."

2 Timothy 3:7 "Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth."

PICJAG, 101G.


Of course not Truther !! That is like asking ," Is God His own Father". Or "Is God posing as the Father ". Your questions suggest that you like 101G already start from" The Father and the Son are two individual beings; one divine -the Father and another one is human- the Son" One is spirit- the Father and another one is flesh- the Son". "God the Elohim- the Father and god jr 2nd place elohim- the Son" That is polytheism qualified by Unitarian lip service of monotheism.

It is said that "The Son is AT the right hand of the Father" wherefore it is also said that," The Son IS the right hand of the Father" . However you render the above; nevertheless we can only see the Father by the Son, likewise we can only see the Son by the Father.



No more foolish than asserting," The Son pre existed in God mind until being born by utterance into flesh ".

According to St John Prologue ,We find divine conception then in first principle; to be the atemporal procession of the Logos in God which is likewise substantial ,hence rightly called generation ;and the Word Himself proceeding is properly called begotten and Son.

It follows God does not " Equally share in one nature" with a creature "for there can be no touching Him" but rather God " Equally share in one nature" by " Extending hypostasis to another " wherefore then who took upon Himself the creature to become obedient unto death to the glory of God the Father.

Lastly to erroneously assert" Equally share in flesh "or "the fully indwelling spirit" still can only be by way of extending hypostasis.


........ Alan
Which one is God?....


For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
 

101G

Active member
"Why callest thou ME good?"..."none is good"..."only God is good".

You just rebuked Jesus by denying his literal words.

The ruler was smarter than that, fella.
ERROR, the ruler was as ignorant and men are today, did he, Jesus the Lord say he was not "Good?". you been reprove, look if you cannot understand that JESUS is God in flesh, no need to respond. come with some meatr to the table.

PICJAG, 101g.
 
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