You don't have an answer for why your "rule" about the placement of the adverb fails in Luke 19:5. You can't just assume that an adverb must fall in a certain location and then make a "rule" around it as you have done. Until you have an explanation for that, you can't explain what's going on in a passage like Matthew 21:28 "Τί δὲ ὑμῖν δοκεῖ; ἄνθρωπος εἶχεν τέκνα δύο. καὶ προσελθὼν τῷ πρώτῳ εἶπεν· τέκνον, ὕπαγε σήμερον ἐργάζου ἐν τῷ ἀμπελῶνι." All you will do is assume it fits your rule.My rule is specific to how σημερον is used in the LXX/GNT and confirms the general description from BDF.
As for fronting, I am fine with their view that putting the pronoun before the verb shows emphasis. Both this and the preferred word order for the adverb can be true at the same time. I don't see that as a problem unless you think that fronting the pronoun is done at the expense of the adverb and view them as mutually
You most certainly did say it was illegitimate, because your "rule" says "always" in both articulations.I never said it was illegitimate, just that the word order and statistics of usage in the NT/GNT are evidence against that view.
Roger Thornhill said:When the Greek adverb σήμερον takes second position to a verb in a separate sentence of direct discourse21 it always further modifies the verb in the first position, without exception, in the corpus of the Greek Septuagint and Greek New Testament.22
Or, simply: When σήμερον follows a verb in Koine where Greek syntax allows for it to modify23 the verb it follows, it always does.
Yes, it did. As I showed you above, your "rule" allows no other possibility, but Carl does.I saw what Carl said about syntax and nothing he said contradicts what I said.
You didn't ask about context as far as I can tell. Perhaps that's what you meant.I quoted him for the context and that is what I asked you about, if you recall. Your generally all over the context and your silence on this speaks to the matter.