Unfortunately for you, it isn't circular reasoning. The author clearly wrote that "all things were made through him" and emphatically adds "not even one thing arose without him" to make clear that was exactly what he meant to say. The ONLY way for that to be true is if the word wasn't made.
The earliest manuscripts were unlikely to have had any punctuation. Besides that, you don't know for certain which punctuation is the earliest; or why it was selected in the first place; or if one punctuation were ever changed to another; or whether or not competing punctuation systems arose independently, etc, etc. Your statement is what faulty logic truly looks like.
I'm not sure what this gibberish means: "John did not say all things through the Word by means." Regardless, if the HS was created, it was made through Jesus. If it wasn't, then he wasn't. It's completely logical, but you sure like your ad hominems.
Or, you could understand it correctly (since John 1 tells us that Jesus wasn't created)....Jesus was speaking about his current state (his condition at the time of the utterance) as a man who had taken on the form of a servant.
What are you saying, "nope" to? There is a single creation event and it is mentioned in verse 3. The text says "what had come into existence*" (You should know by now it refers to the stuff created in verse 3 not to a new creation event.) was life. What you think "in him" modifies really doesn't make much difference. The text is that clear.
*It's a perfect, but this rendering will suffice.
These are two competing explanations. It's either one or the other. (And agency is probably the thing most abused by people who don't know the language. The terms have more to do with grammatical categories and conceptualization than they do with representing a concrete reality. As I have said countless times before, Pharaoh is said to have built the pyramids, but he didn't touch a stone. There is a deed and there is the credit for the deed, and the description does not have to match the reality. That is why the Bible can say both the law was given by God and the law was given by the prophets.)
Um, the part I quoted?