Yahweh will increase
Active member
Now then, Jesus lived among his disciples for about 3 1/2 years and he spoke unto them and they also spoke to him and called him Lord (kurios) many times correct?
By the way, God made Jesus to be Lord and Messiah and therefore his being called "Lord" by no means makes him God, just in case you wanted to try and use that looney argument here.
Acts 2:36
36 “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Messiah.”
So here is the question, where other than by Thomas in John 20:28, was Jesus ever spoken to and addressed as being God by any of the disciples and being you insist that he was in John 20:28?
Also, if Thomas was truly calling Jesus "The Lord of me and The God of me" and which is how it reads in the original Greek, why didn't Thomas just say this instead, "The Lord God of me".
For if indeed he was speaking to only Jesus and not the Father God also who was dwelling within Jesus and as Jesus taught all his disciples in John 14:10, then it is really odd, that he would use the definite articles twice and once in front of the word Lord and then also in front of the word God and then also separate the two titles by the Greek equivalent of "and".
By the way, God made Jesus to be Lord and Messiah and therefore his being called "Lord" by no means makes him God, just in case you wanted to try and use that looney argument here.
Acts 2:36
New International Version
36 “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Messiah.”So here is the question, where other than by Thomas in John 20:28, was Jesus ever spoken to and addressed as being God by any of the disciples and being you insist that he was in John 20:28?
Also, if Thomas was truly calling Jesus "The Lord of me and The God of me" and which is how it reads in the original Greek, why didn't Thomas just say this instead, "The Lord God of me".
For if indeed he was speaking to only Jesus and not the Father God also who was dwelling within Jesus and as Jesus taught all his disciples in John 14:10, then it is really odd, that he would use the definite articles twice and once in front of the word Lord and then also in front of the word God and then also separate the two titles by the Greek equivalent of "and".