Well-known member
Ignorance = bliss

Why did Hitler hate the Jewish people?
Anti-Semitism was rife across Europe. Hitler was not unique in his attitude.
Your claim that he was a devout Christian because his parents were is ridiculously naive.
No. I pointed out that he came from a "devout Christian society". Austria was a devout Catholic country.
If the RCC who persecuted not only Jewish People
It was not simply the RCC. Many good Lutherans were members of the Nazi Party and individuals like Martin Niemöller were caught up in traditional Lutheran Christian anti-Semitism.

In a sermon in August 1935, just a matter of weeks before the first Nuremburg Laws were issued, Niemöller drew several parallels between the Nazis and their German supporters, and the Jews. That sermon is replete with those various Christian libels about Jews wherein Niemöller closely followed the traditional path that the Christian church had paved for nearly two millennia. In his sermon Niemöller stated that the Jews stood as the standard by which he judged (and by which God would judge) the Nazis and their followers for their actual, and potential, shortcomings. He presented the Jews as the paradigmatic evildoers in Christendom, claiming that Jewish history was “dark and sinister” and that the Jewish people could neither live nor nor die because they were "under a curse [that is] the eternal Jew" and this was evinced by the image of the Jew as "a restless wanderer who has no home and cannot find peace".

Much of the language Niemöller used in that sermon would not have been out of place in a speech by Goebbels.


Well-known member
The old lie that the Jews killed the Christ lies at the root of Christian anti-Semitism. Why do you imagine your religion persecuted the Jewish people for upward of 1700 years?

That traditional "history" of Christian martyrdom is mistaken. Christians were not routinely persecuted, hounded or targeted by the Roman authorities. Very few Christians died, and when they did so they were often executed for what today, might be considered political reasons. It should be noted that there is a distinct difference between persecution and proscription.

Again, you need to familiarise yourself with the recent history of this region and how Rome governed the province. Although practically ignored in the gospel accounts, Judaea was, in fact, an area seething with discontent and insurrection and from the late first century BCE and early first century CE there were several mass movements of Jewish peasants who came from villages or towns and who rallied to the leadership of charismatic figures who were viewed as “anointed kings of the Jews” i.e. Messiahs.

Nor were some of those Messianic movements of previous years easily subdued. At least one, led by Athronges, a shepherd, took quite some time for either the Roman or Herodian troops to eventually suppress it.

Then in 6 CE the area witnessed the serious uprising of Judas of Galilee which again was savagely put down resulting in thousands of crucifixions (see Josephus Jewish War II:5:2]. Judas established the fourth branch of Jewish philosophy, the Zealots and his son Menachem, who was another Messianic claimant, would go on to lead the initial revolt against Rome in 66 CE.

Despite his crucifixion by the Romans for sedition and insurrection, those later [post 70 CE] Christian apologists removed Jesus' from the orbit of the recently rebellious Jews. Jesus is portrayed in all four gospel passion narratives as entirely pacific and Rome [in the figure of Pilate] is portrayed sympathetically. It is Rome/Pilate who desperately wants to release this man. It is the Jews who demand Jesus' death and so Rome/Pilate is the weak and helpless accessory forced by the Jews to comply with their bloodlust and give them Jesus. Indeed in the gospel of John it is the Jews who carry out the crucifixion.
Good post....

IMO ....... the Jew's were trying to get the Romans to crucify Jesus.

And the Romans' through it right back at them.