DoctrinesofGraceBapt
Well-known member
I don't know were is a good place to ask this question, but here it goes.
The KJV of Revelation 13:8 is
"And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world."
The ESV, as an example of a modern Translation, says
"and all who dwell on earth will worship it, everyone whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb who was slain."
I have always understood the KJV to say the names were written "from the foundation of the world."; not, the lamb was slain "from the foundation of the world." The ESV seems to agree with me. I don't care about the difference between before and from. I am only interested right now in what was "from the foundation of the world." Here is how I argued it on another thread.
Do you agree with me? Do you disagree with my understanding? Any comments would be appreciated. I don't want to argue, I'm just interested in other opinions.
God Bless
PS: I can see some reject my view as Calvinistic motivating the interpretation that the lamb was slain before the foundation of the world. But, I don't think names written interpretation is theologically significant in the Calvinist/Arminian debate. Both believe in God knows the future. Therefore, whether the names are written via election or foreknowledge isn't significant to interpreting this verse. So unless one rejects God's exhaustive knowledge of future events, neither interpretation of Revelation 13:8 should be a problem.
The KJV of Revelation 13:8 is
"And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world."
The ESV, as an example of a modern Translation, says
"and all who dwell on earth will worship it, everyone whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb who was slain."
I have always understood the KJV to say the names were written "from the foundation of the world."; not, the lamb was slain "from the foundation of the world." The ESV seems to agree with me. I don't care about the difference between before and from. I am only interested right now in what was "from the foundation of the world." Here is how I argued it on another thread.
"whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world." This is a dependent clause.
The Subject "whose names"
The Verb "are not written"
Prepositional phrase #1 "in the book of life of the Lamb slain."
Prepositional phrase #2 "from the foundation of the world."
What does the first prepositional phrase modify? The verb "are not written".
What does the second prepositional phrase modify? You say "slain". I say the verb "are not written".
Think about it for a second. Which makes more sense? Is this additional prepositional phrase saying something more about the topic under discussion: names being and not being written in the book of life? Or, is this prepositional phrase introducing a radically different topic that gives no explanatory insight into what is being discussed in Revelation 13:8?
Do you agree with me? Do you disagree with my understanding? Any comments would be appreciated. I don't want to argue, I'm just interested in other opinions.
God Bless
PS: I can see some reject my view as Calvinistic motivating the interpretation that the lamb was slain before the foundation of the world. But, I don't think names written interpretation is theologically significant in the Calvinist/Arminian debate. Both believe in God knows the future. Therefore, whether the names are written via election or foreknowledge isn't significant to interpreting this verse. So unless one rejects God's exhaustive knowledge of future events, neither interpretation of Revelation 13:8 should be a problem.