Rom. 5

[Synergy]

Question:

Why were Adam’s children also denied access to the “Tree of life”?

Before you would know it they would sin also and they would be in the same sinful predicament as their parents.

 

[guest1]

It's not out of the realm of possibilities for someone to be confined in prison and to degenerate into scornful hate. Even more so if the jail master is the devil who prods and encourages evil behavior.

Already did. Also, I never said that was "the only reason we sin".

Back to the phrase that started this discussion: "...so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned"

What is your interpretation of it?

Curious minds want to know

 

[Sketo]

Question:

Why were Adam’s children also denied access to the “Tree of life”?

Before you would know it they would sin also and they would be in the same sinful predicament as their parents.

Yet before Adam sinned, in his state of “innocence”, he had access to the Tree of Life…

…and you assume babies are innocent, and righteous, and good, and not yet in need of Christ so why were Adam’s children denied access to the Tree of Life?

…

 

[armylngst]

It's not out of the realm of possibilities for someone to be confined in prison and to degenerate into scornful hate. Even more so if the jail master is the devil who prods and encourages evil behavior.

What does that have to do with the argument? There is no correlation between this and your argument.

Already did. Also, I never said that was "the only reason we sin".

Actually, no you did not. I already explained that to you. That verse does not say it. If you already have, then, for the good of the group, can you repost a verse, any verse, that explicitly says that the reason we sin is because we are afraid to die.

Back to the phrase that started this discussion: "...so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned"

What is your interpretation of it?

Thankfully, language study was my job for a period of time. "For that" is another way, an older way, of saying BECAUSE. If you didn't cherry pick verses, and actually cared about exegesis, you would post the whole context. For your enrichment, here it is:
"12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all mankind, because all sinned— 13 for [h]until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not [i]counted against anyone when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the [j]violation committed by Adam, who is a [k]type of Him who was to come.
15 But [l]the gracious gift is not like the offense. For if by the offense of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many. 16 The gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one offense, [m]resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the gracious gift arose from many offenses, [n]resulting in justification. 17 For if by the offense of the one, death reigned through the one, much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ." (NASB)

I think that these verses should make my interpretation clear, for it doesn't need much interpretation to be understood. It is NOT saying what you say it says. It is saying that death entered the world through the sin of Adam, and by his sin death passed on to all his progeny, whether they sinned in the same manner as him or not. And, even the verse you said, when the grammar is more clear, says people die because they sin. It does not say they sin because they are going to die. These verses also give a clear idea of what original sin actually is. It is that by which death entered the world and passed on to all mankind, Adam's sin. It is passed on in the form of a sin nature, by which we are bound.