Racking them up . . .
Joh 1:7 He came as a witness to testify about the Light, so that through him everyone might believe.
7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.
It says "all [men]", not "every single individual".
You are only ASSUMING it means "every single individual".
Do you truly not understand the difference between what it ACTUALLY says, and how you ASSUME the meaning?
Joh 1:9 The true Light who gives light to every man was coming into the world.
This is about "giving light", not "saving".
Clearly you aren't sincerely interested in understanding Scripture, but only in "proof-texting" to support your false theology.
Btw, I would argue that even THIS does not mean "every single individual", as not everyone saw Christ, so not "every single individual" was given the "light".
Oops!
Eph 3:8-9 Though I am less than the least of all the saints, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ, (9) and to illuminate for everyone the stewardship of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
Not only was this written to believers (not "every single individual"), but it doesn't SAY "every single individual". You are simply ASSUMING this meaning.
1Ti 2:1 First of all, then, I urge that petitions, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgiving be offered for everyone—
1Ti 2:3-4 This is good and pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, (4) who wants everyone to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
1Ti 2:5-6 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, (6) who gave Himself as a ransom for all—the testimony that was given at just the right time.
This is one single passage.
Again, this does NOT say, "every single individual".
There's no reason to ASSUME your meaning, rather than interpreting it to mean all CLASSES of people (eg. "kings, those in authority", which you conveniently DELETED from v. 2).
1Ti 4:10 To this end we labor and strive, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of everyone, and especially of those who believe.
So everyone is saved?
Sorry, but the context betrays your misinterpretation.
Since God is not he Saviour of the unsaved (by definition), "everyone" CANNOT mean "every single individual".
Tit 2:11 For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to everyone.
So again, you believe in universal salvation?
That is the only possible interpretation given the above.
My advice to you is to get a better Bible:
Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
"APPEARED" to "all men" (all classes of people), not "bringing salvation to all men".
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slow in keeping His promise as some understand slowness, but is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish but everyone to come to repentance.
Again, you are IGNORING the context. Why are you CONSTANTLY doing that?
2Pet. 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. 9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
This is NOT a "universal" passage. It is referring to a SPECIFIC group, "beloved" and "us-ward", not "every single individual" (and again, it does NOT say "every single individual".
God is not willing for any of "us-ward" or "beloved" to perish, and THEREFORE we won't. This is an AMAZING passage teaching preservation of the saints.
In point of fact, it is YOU who doesn't believe this verse. If God is not willing for anyone to perish, then no one would perish. If anyone perishes, then that means God was PERFECTLY willing for that to happen. The only way around this is if you deny God's omnipotence. Do you deny God's omnipotence?