Salvation can be seen in this analogy

Now Thomas believes, yet it wasn't by him being regenerated by the Holy Spirit, like you claim,

Where does it say, "yet it wasn't by him being regenerated"?
I don't see that ANYWHERE in the passage.

What this proves is you can put your trust in Jesus and believe in him, without receiving the Holy Spirit first.

This is not a didactic passage, it's a narrative.

So you are wrong and scripture shows you to be wrong. God bless.

Wow, you are truly a legend in your own mind, aren't you?
Romans 10:9
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

1 Cor. 12:3 Therefore I want you to understand that no one speaking in the Spirit of God ever says “Jesus is accursed!” and no one can say “Jesus is Lord” except in the Holy Spirit.

You're welcome.

The scripture above is the gospel, or will you deny this?

We don't deny the gospel.
We only reject your misinterpretation of the Scriptures.
You need to understand the difference.
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For the very reason you're going to another verse but won't stay with the Prodigal Son passage kind of indicates you're acknowledging the Lk 15 analogy DOES point to the direction of no irresistible grace that is that the father didn't drag him back.

Luke 15:3-7 (the lost sheep) proves you WRONG.
Luke 15:8-10 (the lost coin) proves you WRONG.

Why not just stay with the actual analogy God gave about one who is spiritually dead?

We do.
YOU are the one who keeps IGNORING it.

And if you're going with Jn 6:44 has to mean drag (from draw) then you have to deal with John 12:32 where Jesus says “And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.”

No, since they are two completely DIFFERENT contexts.

If you're going to say he's dragging all men unto him you're talking about universalism.

No, only if you wish to claim Jesus (12:32) is the Father (6:44), ie. modalism.
And only if you can PROVE (which you can't) that "all men" means, "every single individual without exception".

If you're going to claim it's really all types of men then you're engaging in very strange mental gymnastics in order to arrive at that conclusion.

Worthless personal attack duly noted.

And if Jn 12:32 just means SOME....why then didn't the writer just use the word SOME?

Fallacious argumentation.
If "all men" in John 12:32 just means, "every single individual", then why didn't the writer just use the phrase, "every single individual"?

A quick glance without counting them I assess the word some is in the New Testament dozens of times. So you can't claim it's just some groups of people.

Why not?
You aren't going to convince us to reject Scripture with worthless arguments like that.

If there's any place God would have used the word some it would be there!

"No one .... unless" is the very DEFINITION of "some"!

And seeing he draws all men and not all men

So you're claiming Jesus (12:32) is the Father (6:44)?

come it MUST mean drawing in the context of the verse doesn't mean force or an irresistible method God uses to bring a sinner to himself.

Look at all the twisting and rationalizing and running away to other verses you have to do.
We simply read John 6:44 and believe it.