Your logic is so tortuous I am unable to follow it. How you can you use Greek word forms to assess Hebrew?Whoever translated the Septuagint from Hebrew, understood the language more-so then those that created the strong's concordance.
Exodus 12:9 - אל־תאכלו ממנו נא (Eat not of it raw)
The Septuagint translates this as οὐκ ἔδεσθε ἀπ αὐτῶν ὠμὸν which concludes that נא is ὠμός.
Numbers 30:5 - ואם־הניא אביה אתה (But if her father disallow her)
LXX ἐὰν δὲ ἀνανεύων ἀνανεύσῃ ὁ πατὴρ αὐτῆς
ἀνανεύω - throw the head back in token of denial, make signs of refusal
νεύω - incline in any direction, to nod or beckon, as a sign
*ἀνανεύω as a compound verb therefore homologize with הפעיל
This concludes that נוא is νεύω and ἀνανεύω is הניא, therefore נא "raw" is not from נוא
"Most linguists today do not regard Hebrew and Greek as genetically related, but there is a respectable minority who believe that we can trace relationship further back than Afro-Asiatic and Indo-European to a superphylum, such as Nostratic, or Eurasiatic, depending on the particular theory. In those linguists' conception, Hebrew and Greek are related, but very distantly, in the way that a horse and a fly are very distantly related."[source]