Oh, I see. I thought you were referring to the prepositional phrase -- hard to keep track when so much is scattered around so many posts. No, in John 1:1, John is simply identifying God as God without further distinction. In 1 John 1:2, he specifically identifies the Father. Two different contexts and two different directions.Didn’t you say that τὸν θεον in John 1:1b is not τὸν πατέρα?
Are you admitting that πρὸς τὸν πατέρα in 1 John 1:2 means the same thing as πρὸς τὸν θεον in John 1:1b ?
I’m only talking about the two phrases ..πρὸς τὸν πατέρα in 1 John 1:2 and ..πρὸς τὸν θεον in John 1:1b. In other words ἥτις (ἡ ζωή ἡ αἰώνιος) ἦν πρὸς τὸν Πατέρα in 1 John 1:2 is a rephrasing /paraphrasing of John 1:1b. True or False?