romishpopishorganist
Well-known member
Strictly speaking, at least as I understand it, the "Scriptures" no longer exist. The original inspired autographs on which the Scriptures were recorded do not exist. We have copies, but, as I understand it, most Protestants do not believe that copies are Theopneustos. Not only this, but my understanding is that translations of the copies are not that which are Theopneustos.
If we no longer have the original inspired autographs of Scripture, how can Protestants claim to go by the "Bible Alone?" There is no "sole infallible rule of Faith" that exists by which to norm doctrine, because according to Protestants, if it isn't Theopneustos, it, by definition, cannot be infallible.
Protestants are norming their doctrine on uninspired copies on which translations of Scripture are based; translations themselves that are also uninspired and thus, by definition fallible.
How can something that is uninspired and fallible be the supreme court of final appeal on all matters of Faith and doctrine, or otherwise manifest the supreme authority of God?
My understanding is that the King James Only advocates recognize the problem I have pointed out, hence why they believe the King James version to be the "authorized" version. They see this version as inspired. But many Protestants are not KJO advocates.
So if the Scriptures, technically speaking, no longer exist, in what sense are Protestants "Sola Scriptura?"
If we no longer have the original inspired autographs of Scripture, how can Protestants claim to go by the "Bible Alone?" There is no "sole infallible rule of Faith" that exists by which to norm doctrine, because according to Protestants, if it isn't Theopneustos, it, by definition, cannot be infallible.
Protestants are norming their doctrine on uninspired copies on which translations of Scripture are based; translations themselves that are also uninspired and thus, by definition fallible.
How can something that is uninspired and fallible be the supreme court of final appeal on all matters of Faith and doctrine, or otherwise manifest the supreme authority of God?
My understanding is that the King James Only advocates recognize the problem I have pointed out, hence why they believe the King James version to be the "authorized" version. They see this version as inspired. But many Protestants are not KJO advocates.
So if the Scriptures, technically speaking, no longer exist, in what sense are Protestants "Sola Scriptura?"