You should indicate who you are quoting, if anybody.
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Since you write of "three masculine persons", note that I do have a post about Bill Brown saying about Frederick Nolan:
This is a phantom refutation.
Nowhere is it shown that Nolan talked of three masculine witnesses.
There is no footnote, and my search has not found any such spot.
Earlier placed here:
I wasn't quoting Bill Brown's thesis.
I thought this question up on my own
based on reading several authors (including Bill's excellent point in his brilliant thesis) and what exactly is the key grammatical point (the crux) that makes
the Pro-Comma-Advocates think the masculine gender plural number Greek words, such as
τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες and
οἱ τρεῖς in clauses A and D, in verse 8, are in fact pointing backwards grammatically to these
ὁ Πατήρ, ὁ Λόγος in verse 7, as the supposed masculine antecedent's.
You completely avoided answering that question.
It's a valid question, and it demonstrates you don't understand the key point that supports your claim about the grammar/syntax of 1 John 5:7-8.
To which plural masculine persons or what things, then, are οἱ μαρτυροῦντες
BACKWARDS looking to by "attraction" in 1 John 5:7 (note verse 7) Clause-A?
What three masculine persons are
in the preceding context to 1 John 5:7 (note verse 7) Clause-A who both perform the action denoted by μαρτυροῦντες and who by gender and number concord with μαρτυροῦντες
BACKWARDLY?
1 John 5:7
[Part-A] ὅτι τρεῖς εἰσιν
οἱ μαρτυροῦντες [Part-B] εν τῷ οὐρανῷ, [Part-C] ὁ πατήρ, ὁ λόγος, καὶ τὸ Ἅγιον Πνεῦμα· [Part-D]
καὶ οὗτοι οἱ τρεῖς ἕν εἰσιν
1 John 5:8
[Part-A] καὶ τρεῖς εἰσιν
οἱ μαρτυροῦντες [Part-B] ἕν τῇ γῇ, [Part-C] τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα [Part-D] καὶ οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἕν εἰσὶν
Remembering also that you (and Babinotis) stated that there is a
SYNTACTIC PARALLEL (note SYNTACTIC) here in verse 7 corresponding with verse 8.
Both are exactly the same morphologically and grammatically.
1 John 5:
7 [Part-A] τρεῖς εἰσιν
οἱ μαρτυροῦντες
1 John 5:
8 [Part-A] τρεῖς εἰσιν
οἱ μαρτυροῦντες
Because the masculine gender words in 1 John 5:8 [Part-A] τρεῖς εἰσιν
οἱ μαρτυροῦντες couldn't possibly be "attracted to" to the three neuter nouns τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα in 1 John 5:8 [Part-C]!
Right Steven?
This is what causes the solecism wouldn't it?
Therefore I'm asking you Steven (nobody else - although I don't begrudge you getting help) what exactly grammatical/syntactical
difference is there between 1 John 5:8(Clause-A)
μαρτυροῦντες pointing backwards to ὁ Πατήρ, ὁ Λόγος in 1 John 5:7(Clause-C), as there supposed masculine antecedent's, and 1 John 5:7(Clause-A)
μαρτυροῦντες pointing backwards to masculine antecedent's (based upon the same grammatical rule/principle of "attraction" that
the Pro-Comma-Advocates talk about)
that prevents 1 John 5:7(Clause-A) μαρτυροῦντες from pointing backwards to masculine antecedent?
You claim to be the worlds foremost expert on this particular grammatical point, claiming to understand it better than scholars, grammarians, Greek NT students and teachers alike.
Teach us how this Comma Advocate backwards looking grammatical concordinating works Steven.