This is not a good-faith critique given that you already know that I don't consider "God," "Word," "Father," "Son," "Lord," etc. to be names. What I meant is that "Word" is one way to refer to the entity that is also called "Jesus".
It says he is God. If God is worthy of being deferred to, it would apply.
Πνεῦμα ὁ Θεός (Jn 4:24) doesn't mean we can call God "Spirit". It means God IS spirit, as a matter of constitution or essence. We can defer to the Word of God as the Logos, as scripturally authenticated, by the use of the article "ὁ Λόγος" but we cannot call the logos "God" just because of Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος in Jn 1:1c.
This goes back to my earlier observation that you cannot engage properly with subject and predicate and words with the article, and words without the article. They all have different connotations, which you emasculate by using "God" as an appellative for the Word/Jesus, which Greek grammar clearly repudiates.
See above.
This is a lie. I just addressed this.
I suppose he didn't consider it to be important or he felt it should've been clear enough from what he wrote. Besides, if a son of a man is a "man", then it follows then a Son of God is "God", provided that the terms are used in literal sense.
Jesus never demanded or taught that anyone should refer to himself as "God."
You are the one using the term "God" as a constant synonym for "the Father". This is what I'm referring to.
And why shouldn't I? Are you better than Jesus?
Scripture itself (John 1:1, John 20:28) shows that Jesus is also called God,
It shows nothing of the kind. The use of Θεός as predicate (Jn 1:1c) doesn't give rise to an appellative (cf. also Jn 4:24 and Spirit
supra). Your Greek is as atrocious as your theology.
Moreover Thomas said "The God of me" not just "God", indicating only that he recognized the God of Jesus, the Father who was in Jesus,
as also his God. Again you are clueless as to the principle divine agency, which you disingenuously pretend to understand, but don't.
so you cannot correctly assume the term "God" is always synonymous with "the Father".
On the authority of Jesus and the apostles, John and Paul and their systematic NT theology, reformulated for the New Covenant era, I can insist that the Father and God are equivalent terms for the Father of Jesus, although Father is inherently personal (more equivalent to YHWH), whereas God (theos/elohim) is etymologically cosmopolitan. But there is no doubt that the two terms are deliberately juxtaposed together and distinguished from "the Lord [Jesus Christ]" in:
Eph 4:4-6 "There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called to one hope when you were called;
one Lord, one faith, one baptism;
one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all."
And moreover, and which is an idea I have raised before, if "Jesus [the man] is God", then that makes you a deist, because you have no "Lord" and all you can claim to believe in is a "God called Jesus." But also, it makes you a polytheist, as there is also another God called the Father. And so no amount of BS'ing (except to have recourse to the Sabellian artifice) can derogate from an immediate charge of polytheism against all who say "Jesus [the man] is God" and of bringing Christianity into disrepute (which was noted by Julian the Apostate in
Against the Galileans).
Julian's error was to fail to spot that Jn 1:1c denotes divine agency, and not a separate God (ὁ Θεός) called ὁ Λόγος. To confound ὁ Λόγος and ὁ Θεός could be said to be the foundation of all heresies. Jn 1:1b shows they are distinct and distinctive.
And in respect of all the lands where this bunkum theology that you hold forth originated: it is highly significant that they have all been given by God to the moslems (North Africa, Byzantium, Egypt, Syria), as if to show his contempt for it.
Your claim that Jesus calls the Father, God, therefore Jesus cannot be God is a spectacular example of flawed logic. For one, Jesus said these words while in the form of a man. For another, the beginning of the Gospel already identified Jesus as God as does John 20:28. You give lip service to the idea that
"God" can refer to people/things other than God the Father, but you consistently undermine yourself when you write things like your statement above.
All this is due to the fact that you cannot understand the use of the predicate in Jn 1:1c, because you refuse to be instructed by those who are superior to you. Your teaching is contrary to all sound scholarship, and betrays cultic devotion to the traditions of men, created by the Greeks who sought almost from the inception to hellenize the gospel beyond what the apostles had permitted, leading to innumerable heresies even amongst those proficient in Greek.
Your penchant for euphemistic profanity and undeniable false statements show whose child you are. Darkness always flees from light.
I have seen no light in your theology, which to me is a world of spiritual darkness, chaos and confusion and leaden attachment to deadbeat doctrines whose origin you have no idea of.