The Bible, Monogamy, Adultery, and Mormonism.


Well-known member
Here is what the Bible teaches about a married person marrying someone else (eg. bigamy):

Rom. 7:1 Or do you not know, brothers—for I am speaking to those who know the law—that the law is binding on a person only as long as he lives? 2 For a married woman is bound by law to her husband while he lives, but if her husband dies she is released from the law of marriage. 3 Accordingly, she will be called an adulteress if she lives with another man while her husband is alive. But if her husband dies, she is free from that law, and if she marries another man she is not an adulteress.

Not only do I think this is pretty clear, but there's another important point here. She is called an adulteress "if she lives with another man". This is not speaking merely of cohabitation, but reiterating that marriage is defined by consummation. I'm thinking of the Mormons who try to justify Joseph Smith's plural wives by trying to claim, "he didn't sleep with them".

1Cor. 7:39 A wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.

She is NOT free to marry another as long as her husband still lives.

And what does Jesus say?:

Matt. 5:32 But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Now, let's compare that to Mormon "Scripture":

D&C 132:61 And again, as pertaining to the law of the priesthood—if any man espouse a virgin, and desire to espouse another, and the first give her consent, and if he espouse the second, and they are virgins, and have vowed to no other man, then is he justified; he cannot commit adultery for they are given unto him; for he cannot commit adultery with that that belongeth unto him and to no one else.
D&C 132:62 And if he have ten virgins given unto him by this law, he cannot commit adultery, for they belong to him, and they are given unto him; therefore is he justified.


Super Member
Yep. But where in the D and C 132 does God authorize Smith to marry OTHER men's wives, while they are still married to their first husbands? After all, D and C 132 talks about Smith marrying virgins...but married women would not be, where did God say he could marry other men's wives? Where did God authorize THAT?