Did God intend to follow through sacrifice of Isaac?
Let me see the Canaanites knew God was with Joshua and they knew that they faced His wrath, why did they remain? Who was the cause of the children and infants being killed? Where they all killed isn't there a remnant that remained. Does all mean all? Apparently, it only means all when it suits the RCC teachings. It could be rhetoric - where all does not mean all - https://detroitcatholic.com/news/ga...mand-joshua-to-utterly-destroy-the-canaanites
In Deut. 7:1-6, 17-26 and 20:10-18. they were to be handed over to destruction.
The commands about how Israel was to conduct themselves in war with the surrounding nations appear in two major passages—Deut. 7:1-6, 17-26 and 20:10-18. The first states that the Canaanites were to be handed over to destruction. The “handing over” reinforces the command that the Israelites were to make no treaties, show no mercy, and not intermarry with the Canaanites. In the second, the law states that Israel was to attack other nations outside the land of Canaan only if they were attacked first. They were to first offer peace, and if the nation refused, they could kill only the adult males, while women, children, animals, and spoils may be taken as plunder.
How could an all-loving God could command the extermination of the Canaanites and have Israel carry it out in Joshua through Judges?
This is a difficult issue. We do not fully understand why God would command such a thing, but we trust God that He is just – and we recognize that we are incapable of fully understanding a sovereign, infinite, and eternal God
Why did God command the extermination / genocide of the Canaanites, women and children included? Is God genocidal?